PURPOSE: This rule establishes procedures for reporting patient abstract data for inpatients and outpatients by hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers to the Department of Health.

1. (1) The following definitions shall be used in the interpretation of this rule:

   1. (A) Coinvestigator means any person or organization that applies to the department to be a coinvestigator of an epidemiological study;
   2. (B) Department means the Missouri Department of Health;
   3. (C) Epidemiological study means research using patient abstract data to understand, promote or safeguard the health of a defined population. No marketing study or study designed to use data on a specific provider shall be considered an epidemiological study;
   4. (D) External cause-of-injury code (E- Code) means the ICD-9-CM code for the external cause of an injury, poisoning or adverse effect;
   5. (E) Inpatient encounter means an encounter which begins with the formal acceptance by a hospital or a distinct part of the hospital of a patient who is to receive physician, dentist or allied services while receiving room, board and continuous nursing care. It ends with the termination of the room, board and continuous nursing services, and the formal release of an inpatient from the hospital or the transfer of the patient to a different distinct hospital unit;
   6. (F) Managed care means any form of health plan that initiates selective contracting to channel patients to a limited number of providers and that influences utilization and cost of services as well as measures outcomes. The term covers a broad spectrum of arrangements for health care delivery and financing, including managed indemnity plans (MIP), health maintenance organizations (HMO), preferred provider organizations (PPO), point-of-service plans (POS), as well as direct contracting arrangements between employers and providers.
   7. (G) Observation services are those services furnished on a hospital’s premises, including use of a bed and periodic monitoring by a hospital’s nursing or other staff, which are reasonable and necessary to evaluate an outpatient’s condition or determine the need for a possible admission to the hospital as an inpatient. Charges for observation services usually are made on an hourly basis. Observation services usually do not exceed twenty-four (24) hours. However, there is no hourly limit on the extent to which they may be used;
   8. (H) Other diagnoses means all conditions that coexist at the time of admission or develop later, which affect the treatment received or the length of stay, or both. Diagnoses that relate to an earlier episode which have no bearing on the current hospital stay are to be excluded. Conditions should be coded that affect patient care in terms of requiring any of the following: clinical evaluation, therapeutic treatment, diagnostic procedures, extended length of hospital stay, increased nursing care or monitoring;
   9. (I) Outpatient encounters means patients seen in the emergency room, patients receiving invasive procedures on an outpatient basis—CPT codes 10000-69999 and ICD-9- CM codes 01.0-86.99, inclusive—and patients receiving selected services and procedures as defined in Exhibit A of this rule, included herein;
   10. (J) Principal diagnosis means the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital for care;
   11. (K) Principal procedure means the procedure that was performed for definitive treatment rather than one performed for diagnostic or exploratory purposes, or was necessary to take care of a complication. If two (2) procedures appear to be the principal procedure, then the one (1) most related to the principal diagnosis should be selected as the principal procedure;
   12. (L) Procedure codes and dates mean the codes and dates for all significant procedures. A significant procedure is one that is surgical in nature, carries a procedural risk, carries an anesthetic risk or requires specialized training. Surgery includes incision, excision, amputation, introduction, endoscopy, repair, destruction, suture and manipulation;
   13. (M) Public health authority means a federal, state or local governmental agency which has as its mission and responsibility the promotion and safeguarding of the public’s health; and
   14. (N) Total charges for inpatient services means charges for the inpatient hospitalization, including outpatient services prior to admission to the facility or after discharge from the facility or both to the extent the claim’s payer has required the bundling of outpatient services with the inpatient stay. 19 CSR 10-33
2. (2) All hospitals shall file with the department patient abstract data on patients discharged from a hospital after December 31, 1992, patients receiving an outpatient service after December 31, 1992, and patients released from observation after December 31, 1992. All ambulatory surgical centers shall file with the department patient abstract data on patients receiving an outpatient service after December 31, 1993.

3. (3) Data which meet the completeness, validity and consistency criteria in subsections (3)(A) and (B) of this rule shall be submitted to the department on a quarterly basis within five (5) months following the end of a calendar quarter in which the discharge or outpatient service occurred.

   1. (A) Each data element shall have an acceptable code in at least ninety-nine percent (99%) of the records. Each data element shall be missing or unknown in less than one percent (1%) of records.
   2. (B) The following data elements shall be at least ninety-nine percent (99%) consistent within an individual record: date of birth, sex, diagnoses, E-Codes, procedures; state of residence, zip code, county; and admission date, procedure dates, discharge date, date of birth.

4. (4) The patient abstract data shall include the data elements and conform to the specifications listed in Exhibit B of this rule, included herein, and shall be submitted on electronic media. Acceptable electronic media include the following:

   1. (A) IBM-3480 compatible one-half-inch (1/2") eighteen (18) track tape uncompressed (3480) or compressed (3490);
   2. (B) IBM formatted 1.44 Mb diskette; or
   3. (C) Other magnetic media may be acceptable with prior approval of the department.
5. (5) Providers shall be allowed fifteen (15) working days to correct data submission errors identified by the department. Revisions of data originally filed shall be filed on magnetic media and contain the entire logical record for each record changed.
6. (6) Providers shall notify the department by January 1 of each year if they plan to submit the required data to the department through an association or related organization with which the department has a binding agreement to obtain data. Providers selecting this option are responsible for ensuring that the data meet the quality criteria of completeness, validity and consistency in subsections (3)(A) and (B) of this rule, and are submitted to the association or related organization so the time schedule in section (3) of this rule is met. The association or related organization is responsible for ensuring that the data are provided to the department on acceptable magnetic media, conform to the specifications listed in Exhibit B of this rule, meeting the time schedule of section (3) of this rule.
7. (7) Providers may submit data directly to the department or through a third party acting as their agent, other than one with which the department has a binding agreement. Providers selecting this option are responsible for ensuring that all data specifications conform to the requirements of this rule.
8. (8) The department shall develop and publish reports pertaining to individual hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers. The reports may include information on charges and quality of care indicators. The reports and the data they contain shall be public information and may be released on electronic media. The department shall make the reports and data available for a reasonable charge based on incurred costs.

9. (9) The department shall use statistical rules to minimize random fluctuations and extreme outliers in publishing provider-specific reports on charges. The rules may vary by publication but shall include the following:

   1. (A) The most appropriate measure of central tendency shall be used. Whenever the average charge is used it shall be computed only upon cases that are within 1.96 standard deviations of the average of the entire distribution; and
   2. (B) Average charges shall not be published on fewer than twenty (20) events.
10. (10) The department may develop reports and release data upon request which do not directly or indirectly identify patients, physicians or providers. The reports and data shall be public information and may be released on magnetic media. The department shall make the reports and data available for a reasonable charge based upon incurred costs.
11. (11) The department may release patient abstract data to a public health authority to assist the agency in fulfilling its public health mission. This data shall not be rereleased in any form by the public health authority without the prior authorization of the department. Authorization for subsequent release of the data shall be considered only if the proposed release does not identify a patient, physician or provider. However, the department may authorize contact with the patient, physician or provider based upon the information supplied. The physician and provider that provided care to a patient shall be informed by the public health authority of any proposed contact with a patient.

12. (12) Any person may apply to the department to be a coinvestigator of an epidemiological study using patient abstract data. A research protocol shall be submitted which includes all of the following:

    1. (A) A description of the proposed study;
    2. (B) The purpose of the study;
    3. (C) A description of the data elements needed for the study;
    4. (D) A description of a tape or a report if either is required;
    5. (E) A statement indicating whether the study protocol has been reviewed and approved by an institutional review board;
    6. (F) A description of data security procedures, including who shall have access to the data; and
    7. (G) A description of the proposed use and release of the data.

13. (13) The director of the department shall appoint a data release advisory committee composed of three (3) persons representing the health care industry and three (3) persons representing researchers and consumers. The advisory committee shall review all research protocols of persons applying to be a coinvestigator of an epidemiological study using patient abstract data. The advisory committee shall make a recommendation to the director whether the coinvestigator protocol should be accepted, accepted with conditions, or rejected. The committee shall consider:

    1. (A) The review made by the staff of the department;
    2. (B) Whether the proposed study meets the definition of an epidemiological study;
    3. (C) The potential for the coinvestigator or any other person to use the data for nonepidemiological purposes;
    4. (D) The professional expertise of the applicant to conduct the study;
    5. (E) The appropriateness of the proposed study design;
    6. (F) The willingness and ability of the applicant to protect the identity of any patient, physician or provider; and
    7. (G) The data security measures and final disposition of the data proposed.
14. (14) The coinvestigator shall agree to the confidentiality, security and release of data requirements imposed by the department and shall agree to the review and oversight requirements imposed by the department.
15. (15) Data released to the coinvestigator shall not be rereleased in any form by the coinvestigator without the prior authorization of the department. Authorization for subsequent release of the data shall be considered only if the proposed release does not identify a patient, physician or provider.
16. (16) The following data elements permit identification of a patient, physician or provider, and are not to be rereleased by a coinvestigator: patient name; patient Social Security number; any datum which applies to fewer than three (3) patients, physicians or providers; physician number; provider number; and a quantity figure if one (1) entity contributes more than sixty percent (60%) of the amount.
17. (17) The department shall release only those patient abstract data elements to the coinvestigator which the department determines are essential to the study. The Unique Physician Identification Number (UPIN) associated with any patient abstract data shall not be released to any coinvestigator. If the research being conducted by a coinvestigator requires a physician number, the department may create a unique number which is not the UPIN. The department shall not provide information which links the unique number to the name of the physician.

18. (18) No epidemiological study conducted with a coinvestigator shall be approved unless the department determines that—

    1. (A) The epidemiological study has public benefit sufficient to warrant the department to expend resources necessary to oversee the project with the coinvestigator;
    2. (B) The department has sufficient resources available to oversee the project with the coinvestigator; and
    3. (C) The data release advisory committee reviewed the study and the director of the department authorized approval.
19. (19) Public health authorities and coinvestigators receiving data shall be informed by the department of the penalty for violating section 192.067, RSMo.
20. (20) The department shall store the patient abstract data tapes and files to limit access of the data only to employees of the department who are designated to have access to the files. The name and Social Security number of the patient and the physician number shall not be retained on a file with the rest of the patient abstract data but shall be retained on a separate file. A patient identification number may be retained on both files to facilitate linkage when a study is conducted requiring patient or physician identification.
21. (21) Any provider which determines it temporarily will be unable to comply with any of the provisions of this rule or with the provisions of a previously-submitted plan of correction can provide the department with written notification of the expected deficiencies and a written plan of correction. This notification and plan of correction shall include the section number and text of the rule in question, specific reasons why the provider cannot comply with the rule, an explanation of any extenuating factors which may be relevant, the means the provider will employ for correcting the expected deficiency, and the date by which each corrective measure will be completed.
22. (22) Any provider which is not in compliance with these rules shall be notified in writing by the department. The notification shall specify the deficiency and the action which must be taken to be in compliance. The chief executive officer or designee shall have ten (10) working days following receipt of the written notification of noncompliance to provide the department with a written plan for correcting the deficiency. The plan of correction shall specify the means the provider will employ for correcting the cited deficiency and the date that each corrective measure will be completed.
23. (23) Upon receipt of a required plan of correction, the department shall review the plan to determine the appropriateness of the corrective action. If the plan is acceptable, the department shall notify the chief executive officer or designee in writing and indicate that implementation of the plan should proceed. If the plan is not acceptable, the department shall notify the chief executive officer or designee in writing and indicate the reasons why the plan was not accepted. A revised, acceptable plan of correction shall be provided to the department within ten (10) working days.
24. (24) Failure of the provider to submit an acceptable plan of correction within the required time shall be considered continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule unless determined otherwise by the director of the department.
25. (25) Failure of any provider to follow its accepted plan of correction shall be considered continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule unless determined otherwise by the director of the department. 19 CSR 10-33
26. (26) Any provider in continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule shall be notified by registered mail and reported by the department to its Bureau of Hospital Licensing and Certification, Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs, Bureau of Emergency Medical Services, Bureau of Home Health Licensing and Certification, Bureau of Radiological Health, State Public Health Laboratory, Bureau of Special Health Care Needs, the Division of Medical Services of the Department of Social Services, the Division of Vocational Rehabilitation of the Department of Elementary and Secondary Education and to other state agencies that administer a program with provider participation. The department shall notify the agencies that the provider is no longer eligible for participation in a state program.

27. (27) Any provider that has been declared to be ineligible for participation in a state program shall be eligible for reinstatement by correcting the deficiencies and making written application for reinstatement to the Department of Health. Any provider meeting the requirements for reinstatement shall be notified by registered mail. The Department of Health shall notify state agencies that administer a program with provider participation that the provider’s eligibility for participation in a state program has been reinstated. CPT-4 ICD-9-CM Code Description Equiv. 43265 Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), with or without biopsy or collection of specimen, or both; for destruction lithotripsy of stone, any method 50080 Percutaneous nephrostolithotomy or pyelostolithotomy, with or without dilation endoscopy, lithotripsy, stenting or basket extraction; up to 2 cm 50081 over 2 cm 50590 Lithotripsy, extracorporeal shock wave 52337 Cystourethroscopy, with ureteroscopy or pyeloscopy, or both (includes dilation of the ureter by any method); with lithotripsy (ureteral catheterization is included) 70336 Magnetic resonance (*proton) imaging, temporomandibular joint 70450 Computerized axial tomography, head or brain; without contrast material 70460 with contrast material(s) 70470 without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sections 70480 Computerized axial tomography, orbit, sella, or posterior fossa or outer, middle, or inner ear; without contrast material 70481 with contrast material(s) 70482 without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sections 70486 Computerized axial tomography, maxillofacial area; without contrast material 70487 with contrast material(s) 70488 without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sections 70490 Computerized axial tomography, soft tissue neck; without contrast material 70491 with contrast material(s) 70492 without contrast material followed by contrast material(s) and further sections 70540 Magnetic resonance (*proton) imaging; orbit, face, and neck 70551 Magnetic resonance (*proton) imaging, brain (including brain stem); without contrast material 70552 with contrast material(s) 70553 without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sequences 71250 Computerized axial tomography, thorax; without contrast material Selected Services and Procedures: Computed Tomography, Magnetic Resonance Imaging, Lithotripsy

    CPT-4 Code 71260 with contrast material(s) 71270 without contrast material, fol-

    71550 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

51.10

72125 Computerized axial tomogra-

55.03 55.03 72126 with contrast material 72127 without contrast material, fol- 98.51 72128 Computerized axial tomogra-

72129 with contrast material

56.0 72130 without contrast material, fol-

88.97 72131 Computerized axial tomogra-

87.03 72132 with contrast material 87.03 72133 without contrast material, fol-

87.03 72141 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

87.03 72142 with contrast material(s) 87.03 72146 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

87.03 72147 with contrast material(s) 72148 Magnetic resonance (*proton) 87.03 87.03 72149 with contrast material(s) 87.03 72156 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

88.38 88.38 72157 72158 88.38 72192 Computerized axial tomogra- 88.97 72193 with contrast material(s) 72194 without contrast material, fol- 88.91 88.91 72196 Magnetic resonance (*proton) 88.91 73200 Computerized axial tomogra-

73201 with contrast material(s)

87.41 EXHIBIT A

(* means for example) ICD-9-CM Description

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections imaging, chest (for example, evaluation of hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy) phy, cervical spine; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections phy, thoracic spine; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections phy, lumbar spine; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections imaging, spinal canal and contents, cervical; without contrast material

imaging, spinal canal and contents, thoracic; without contrast material

imaging, spinal canal and contents, lumbar; without contrast material

imaging, spinal canal and contents, without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sequences; cervical thoracic lumbar phy, pelvis; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections imaging, pelvis phy, upper extremity; without contrast material CPT-4 Equiv. Code 73202 without contrast material, fol- 87.41

87.41 73220 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

73221 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

88.92

73700 Computerized axial tomogra-

88.38 88.38 73701 with contrast material(s) 88.38 73702 without contrast material, fol-

88.38 73720 Magnetic resonance (*proton) 88.38

73721 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

88.38

74150 Computerized axial tomogra-

88.38 88.38 74160 with contrast material(s) 88.38 74170 without contrast material, fol-

74181 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

88.93 88.93 75552 Magnetic resonance (*proton)

76070 Computerized

88.93 88.93 76355 Computerized

76360 Computerized

88.93 88.93

76365 Computerized

88.93 88.93 76370 Computerized 88.93

76375 Computerized

88.38 88.38

88.38 76380 Computerized 88.95 76400 Magnetic resonance (*proton) 88.38 88.38 ICD-9-CM Description lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections

imaging, upper extremity, other than joint

imaging, any joint of upper extremity

phy, lower extremity; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections

imaging, lower extremity, other than joint

imaging, any joint of lower extremity

phy, abdomen; without contrast material

lowed by contrast material(s) and further sections

imaging, abdomen

imaging, myocardium tomography, bone density study tomography guidance for stereotactic localization tomography guidance for needle biopsy, radiological supervision and interpretation tomography guidance for cyst aspiration, radiological supervision and interpretation tomography guidance for placement of radiation therapy fields tomography, coronal, sagittal, multiplanar, oblique or three (3)-dimensional reconstruction, or any combination of these tomography, limited or localized follow-up study

imaging, bone marrow blood supply Equiv.

88.38

88.94

88.94

88.38 88.38

88.38

88.94

88.94

88.01 88.01

88.01

88.97

88.92

88.98

87.03

88.38

88.38

88.38

88.38

88.38

88.94 EXHIBIT B Patient Abstract System (Master Record) Relative Position Field Name Field Length Record type 1 Provider identifier 2-11

Unique encounter identifier 12-31

Type of encounter 32

Place of service 33

Patient name 34-63

Patient Social Security Number 64-72

Patient birthdate 73-80 Patient sex 81

Patient ethnicity 82 A-Record

Format

10 A/N

20 A/N

30 A/N Justify A

N

N

N

N A

N 19 CSR 10-33

Description

L Constant "A" L This field shall contain the National Provider Identifier (NPI), when assigned. Prior to NPI assignment, enter the Medicare provider number (or state assigned number). L Unique identifier within facility (hospital or ASC) for each discharge record or patient encounter. L Type of encounter record 1 = Inpatient; 2 = Outpatient. L For hospital inpatients 1 = Acute medical/surgical unit (non PPS exempt); 2 = Psychiatric unit or facility; 3 = Medical rehabilitation unit or facility; 4 = Alternate level of care (SNF/ICF/Other LTC/ Hospice/Sub Acute/Swing bed); 5 = Alcohol rehabilitation unit or facility; 6 = Drug rehabilitation unit or facility; 7 = Other. For hospital outpatients 1 = Emergency room; 2 = Outpatient surgery; 3 = Observation only; 4 = Other. For ASC patients 2 = Outpatient surgery L Not to be reported for patients receiving treatment for alcohol or drug abuse. Last name, first name and middle initial of the patient. Use a comma to separate last and first names. No space should be left between a prefix and a name as in MacBeth. Titles (for example, Sir, Msgr., Dr.) should not be recorded. Record hyphenated names with the hyphen, as in Smith-Jones, Rebecca. To record suffix, write the last name, leave a space and write the suffix, then write the first name as in Snyder III, Harold. R Not to be reported for patients receiving treatment for alcohol or drug abuse. If patient refuses, code as 999999999. R MMDDYYYY L Patient sex at time of admission or start of care: M = Male; F = Female; U = Unknown/indeterminate. L 1 = Hispanic or Latino 2 = Neither Hispanic nor Latino Relative Field Name Position Field Length Patient race 83

State of residence 84-85 Zip code 86-90

County code 91-93

Census tract 94-100

Admission date 101-108 Admission hour 109-110

Type of admission 111 Format Justify 1 N

2 N 5 N

3 N

7 A/N

8 N 2 N

1 N Description L 1 = White; 2 = Black or African American; 3 = American Indian/Alaska Native; 4 = Asian; 5 = Native Hawaiian/Pacific Islander; 6 = Some other race 7= Multi-racial (two or more races) 9 = Unknown or patient refused R FIPS codes (homeless = 97; non-U.S. citizen = 98) R First five digits (homeless = 99997; non-U.S. citizen = 99998) R Required for Missouri residents. Use FIPS codes (homeless = 997; non-U.S. citizen = 998) L Census Tract code: 7 characters, formatted XXXX.XX (where X is a digit 0-9) If census tract is not available, provide patient address information on the C-Record. R MMDDYYYY R Required for inpatient records only 00 = 12:00–12:59 Midnight; 01 = 1:00–1:59 02 = 2:00–2:59 03 = 3:00–3:59 04 = 4:00–4:59 05 = 5:00–5:59 06 = 6:00–6:59 07 = 7:00–7:59 08 = 8:00–8:59 09 = 9:00–9:59 10 = 10:00–10:59 11 = 11:00–11:59 12 = 12:00–12:59 Noon; 13 = 1:00–1:59 14 = 2:00–2:59 15 = 3:00–3:59 16 = 4:00–4:59 17 = 5:00–5:59 18 = 6:00–6:59 19 = 7:00–7:59 20 = 8:00–8:59 21 = 9:00–9:59 22 = 10:00–10:59 23 = 11:00–11:59 99 = Unknown L Required for inpatient records only 1=Emergency—The patient requires immediate intervention as a result of severe, life threatening or potentially disabling conditions; 2=Urgent/Elective—(UB-92 codes 2 and 3); 4=Newborn—Use of this code requires special source of admission codes for newborns. Relative Field Field Name Position Length Format Justify Description Source of admission/referral 112 1 N L Code Structure for Adult/Pediatric Patients: 1 = Direct admission or referral (UB-92 codes, 1, 2 and 3). The patient was admitted to this facility or referred for services upon the recommendation of a physician, or the facility’s clinic or outpatient department. For emergency room patients, includes self-referral; 2 = Transfer from other hospital (UB-92 code 4). The patient was transferred for services to this facility or referred from an acute-care facility; 3 = Transfer from long-term care facility (UB-92 codes to 5 and 6). The patient was transferred from or referred for services by an SNF or other long-term facility. 4 = Emergency room admission or referral (UB-92 code 7). The patient was admitted to this facility or referred for outpatient services through the emergency room. 8 = Other (UB-92 code 8); 9 = Unknown/Information not available Code Structure for Newborns: 1 = Normal birth—A baby delivered without complications; 2 = Premature birth—A baby delivered with time or weight factors, or both, qualifying it for premature status; 3 = Sick baby—A baby delivered with medical complications other than those related to premature status; 4 = Extramural birth—A newborn born in a nonsterile environment; 9 =Information not available. Discharge date 113-120 8 N R MMDDYYYY Discharge hour 121-122 2 N R Required for inpatient records only 00 = 12:00–12:59 Midnight; 01 = 1:00–1:59 02 = 2:00–2:59 03 = 3:00–3:59 04 = 4:00–4:59 05 = 5:00–5:59 06 = 6:00–6:59 07 = 7:00–7:59 08 = 8:00–8:59 09 = 9:00–9:59 10 = 10:00–10:59 11 = 11:00–11:59 12 = 12:00–12:59 Noon; 13 = 1:00–1:59 14 = 2:00–2:59 15 = 3:00–3:59 16 = 4:00–4:59 17 = 5:00–5:59 18 = 6:00–6:59 19 = 7:00–7:59 20 = 8:00–8:59 21 = 9:00–9:59 22 = 10:00–10:59 23 = 11:00–11:59 99 = Unknown. Observation units 123-125 3 N R The number of hours spent by a patient held for observation Relative Field Name Position Disposition of patient

Medical/Health record number

E-Code External cause of injury

Place of injury code

Principal diagnosis code

Other procedure codes and dates Code

Date Field Length

126-127

128-144

145-149

150-154

155-159

216-290 75 (5 X 15) Format Justify 2 N

17 A/N

5 A/N

5 A/N

5 A/N

1. (7) A/N

2. (8) N Description R Designation of the circumstances associated with the patient's discharge. 01 = Discharged to home or self-care (routine discharge); 02 = Discharged/transferred to another short-term general hospital for inpatient care; 03 = Discharged/transferred to skilled nursing facility (SNF); 04 = Discharged/transferred to an intermediate care facility (ICF); 05 = Discharged/transferred to another type of institution for inpatient care or referred for outpatient services to another institution; 06 = Discharged/transferred to home under care of organized home health service organization; 07 = Left against medical advice or discontinued care; 08 =Discharged/transferred to home under care of a Home IV provider; 09 =Admitted as an inpatient to this hospital; 20 =Expired L Number assigned to the patient's medical/health record by the provider L The ICD-9-CM code for the external cause of injury, poisoning or adverse effect. If more than one E-code, enter the first E-code, according to coding guidelines. Although an E-code may be used with any diagnosis in the range 001-V82.9, it must be present when a diagnosis code is in the range 800.00-999.99 L The ICD-9-CM code for the place of injury reported in the External cause of injury field. Use when External Cause of Injury E-code is E850-E869 or E880-E928. Only codes in range E849.0-E849.9 are valid. L ICD-9-CM code. (Note: An E-code is

   All significant procedures are to be reported

L First 7 positions of each 15 position field: The ICD-9-CM code or CPT-4 code for the secondary procedure Next 8 positions of each 15 position field: MMDDYYYY

Relative

Field Name Position Total charges

Expected sources of payment

Attending physician ID

Principal procedure physician ID Field Length Format Justify Description 291-297 7 N

298-306 9 (3 X 3) N

307-316 10 A/N

317-326 10 A/N 19 CSR 10-33

R Total charges (those associated with revenue code 001) rounded to the nearest dollar L Payment sources expected to pay for the hospitalization or the ambulatory service being recorded, with the primary payer listed first: 001 = Medicare, not managed care; 002 = Medicaid, not managed care; 003 = Other government, not managed care; 005 = Workers' Compensation, not managed care; 006 = Self pay; 007 = All commercial payers, not managed care; 008 = No charge; 010 = Other, not managed care; 101 = Medicare managed care; 102 = Medicaid managed care; 103 = Other government managed care; 105 = Workers' Compensation managed care; 107 = All commercial payers managed care; 110 = Other managed care; 999 = Unknown L This field shall contain the National Provider Identifier (NPI), when assigned, of the physician who has primary responsibility for the patient's medical care and treatment. Prior to NPI assignment, enter the Unique Physician Identification Number (UPIN), or if no UPIN, enter the Missouri license number. All entries must be left justified. L This field shall contain the National Provider Identifier (NPI), when assigned, of the physician who performed the principal procedure. Prior to NPI assignment, enter the Unique Physician Identification Number (UPIN), or if no UPIN, enter the Missouri license number. All entries must be left justified. To be used when there are more diagnoses and/or procedures than will fit on the A-Record

Relative

Field Name Position Record type 1 Provider identifier 2-11

To be used when census tract information is not available

B-Record

(Continuation Record)

Field Length Format Justify Description 1 A L Constant "B" 10 A/N L This field shall contain the National Provider Identifier (NPI), when assigned. Prior to NPI assignment, enter the

C-Record

(Continuation Record)

AUTHORITY: section 192.667, RSMo 2000.* Emergency rule filed Nov. 4, 1992, effective Nov. 14, 1992, expired March 13, 1993. Emergency rule filed March 4, 1993, effective March 14, 1993, expired July 11, 1993. Original rule filed Nov. 4, 1992, effective June 7, 1993. Emergency amendment filed April 1, 1993, effective April 11, 1993, expired Aug. 8, 1993. Emergency amendment filed Aug. 10, 1993, effective Aug. 20, 1993, expired Nov. 18, 1993. Amended: Filed April 1, 1993, effective Dec. 9, 1993. Amended: Filed May 15, 1998, effective Nov. 30, 1998. Emergency amendment filed March 1, 2001, effective April 1, 2001, expired Jan. 10, 2002. Amended: Filed April 13, 2001, effective Oct. 30, 2001.

*Original authority: 192.667, RSMo 1992, amended 1993, 1995. 19 CSR 30-33.020 Reporting Charges for Leading Diagnoses and Procedures by Hospitals and Ambulatory Surgical Centers PURPOSE: This rule establishes procedures for reporting charges for leading diagnoses and procedures by hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers to the Department of Health. (1) Hospitals and ambulatory surgical centers shall report to the Department of Health by March 1 of each year, the charges as of December 31 of the previous year for the diagnoses and procedures listed in Exhibit C of this rule, included herein. (2) The Department of Health may develop and publish reports pertaining to individual providers. The reports and the data they contain shall be public information and may be released on magnetic media. The Department of Health shall make the reports and data available for a reasonable charge based upon incurred costs. (3) The Department of Health may develop reports and release data upon request which do not directly or indirectly identify individual providers. The reports and data shall be public information and may be released on magnetic media. The Department of Health shall make the reports and data available for a reasonable charge based upon incurred costs. (4) Any provider which determines it temporarily will be unable to comply with any part of this rule or with the provisions of a previously submitted plan of correction can provide the Department of Health with written notification of the expected deficiencies and a written plan of correction. The notification and plan of correction shall include the section number and text of the rule in question, specific reasons why the provider cannot comply with the rule, an explanation of any extenuating factors which may be relevant, the means the provider will employ for correcting the expected deficiency, and the date by which each corrective measure will be completed. (5) Any provider which is not in compliance with this rule shall be notified in writing by the Department of Health. The notification shall specify the deficiency and the action which must be taken to be in compliance. The chief executive officer or designee shall have ten (10) working days following receipt of the written notification of noncompliance to provide the Department of Health with a written plan for correcting the deficiency. The plan of correction shall specify the means the provider will employ for correcting the cited deficiency and the date that each corrective measure will be completed. (6) Upon receipt of a required plan of correction, the Department of Health shall review the plan to determine the appropriateness of the corrective action. If the plan is acceptable, the Department of Health shall notify the chief executive officer or designee in writing and indicate that implementation of the plan should proceed. If the plan is not acceptable, the Department of Health shall notify the chief executive officer or designee in writing and indicate the reasons why the plan was not accepted. A revised, acceptable plan of correction shall be provided to the Department of Health within ten (10) working days. (7) Failure of the provider to submit an acceptable plan of correction within the required time shall be considered continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule unless determined otherwise by the director of the Department of Health. (8) Failure of any provider to follow its accepted plan of correction shall be considered continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule unless determined otherwise by the director of the Department of Health. (9) Any provider in continued and substantial noncompliance with this rule shall be notified by registered mail and reported by the Department of Health to its Bureau of Hospital Licensing and Certification, Bureau 19 CSR 10-33 of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs, Bureau of Emergency Medical Services, Bureau of Home Health Licensing and Certification, Bureau of Radiological Health, State Public Health Laboratory, Bureau of Special Health Care Needs, the Division of Medical Services of the Department of Social Services, the Division of Vocational Rehabilitation of the Department of Elementary and Secondary Education and to other state agencies that administer a program with provider participation. The Department of Health shall notify the agencies that the provider is no longer eligible for participation in a state program. (10) Any provider that has been declared to be ineligible for participation in a state program shall be eligible for reinstatement by correcting the deficiencies and making written application for reinstatement to the Department of Health. Any provider meeting the requirements for reinstatement shall be notified by registered mail. The Department of Health shall notify state agencies that administer a program with provider participation that the provider’s eligibility for participation in a state program has been reinstated. EXHIBIT C List of Diagnoses and Procedures List of Inpatient Diagnoses Cesarean section without complications or comorbidities, or both Four-day stay DRG 371 Vaginal delivery without complicating diagnoses Two-day stay DRG 373 Normal newborn Two-day stay DRG 391 List of Outpatient Procedures* Operations on the Nervous System Epidural pain block CPT-4 62278 Injection of anesthetic substance (including narcotics), diagnostic or therapeutic; lumbar or caudal epidural, single ICD-9 03.91 Injection of anesthetic into spinal canal for analgesia Carpal tunnel release CPT-4 64721 Neuroplasty or transposition, or both; median nerve at carpal tunnel ICD-9 04.43 Release of carpal tunnel Operations on the Eye Radial keratotomy (surgical correction of myopia) CPT-4 65771 Radial keratotomy ICD-9 11.75 Radial keratotomy Cataract removal, with intraocular lens implant CPT-4 66983 Intracapsular cataract extraction with insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis (one stage procedure) CPT-4 66984 Extracapsular cataract removal with insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis (one stage procedure), manual or mechanical technique (for example, irrigation and aspiration or phacoemulsification) ICD-9 13.19 Other intracapsular extraction of lens, plus ICD-9 13.71 Insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis at time of cataract extraction, one (1) stage ICD-9 13.59 Other extracapsular extraction of lens, plus ICD-9 13.71 Insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis at time of cataract extraction, one (1) stage Removal of secondary cataract CPT-4 66821 Discussion of secondary membranous cataract (opacified posterior lens capsule, anterior haloid, or both); laser surgery (for example, YAG laser) (one (1) or more stages) ICD-9 13.64 Discussion of secondary membrane (after cataract) Secondary insertion of intraocular lens/Exchange of intraocular lens CPT-4 66985 Insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis (secondary implant), not associated with concurrent cataract removal CPT-4 66986 Exchange of intraocular lens ICD-9 13.72 Secondary insertion of intraocular lens prosthesis Operations on the Ear, Nose, Mouth and Pharynx Myringotomy, with or without tubes CPT-4 69421 Myringotomy including aspiration or eustachian tube inflation, or both, requiring general anesthesia CPT-4 69436 Tympanostomy (requiring insertion of ventilating tube), general anesthesia ICD-9 20.01 Myringotomy with insertion of tube Nasal fracture, closed reduction CPT-4 21320 Manipulative treatment, nasal bone fracture; with stabilization ICD-9 21.71 Closed reduction of nasal fracture Septoplasty CPT-4 30520 Septoplasty or submucous resection, with or without cartilage scoring, contouring or replacement with graft ICD-9 21.88 Other septoplasty Tonsillectomy without adenoidectomy CPT-4 42825 Tonsillectomy, primary or secondary; under age 12 CPT-4 42826 age 12 or over ICD-9 28.2 Tonsillectomy without adenoidectomy Tonsillectomy with adenoidectomy CPT-4 42820 Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy; under age 12 CPT-4 42821 age 12 or over ICD-9 28.3 Tonsillectomy with adenoidectomy Operations on the Cardiovascular System Cardiac catheterization, left heart CPT-4 93510 Left heart catheterization, retrograde, from the brachial artery, axillary artery or femoral artery; percutaneous CPT-4 93511 by cutdown CPT-4 93514 Left heart catheterization by left ventricular puncture CPT-4 93524 Combined transseptal and retrograde left heart catheterization ICD-9 37.22 Left heart cardiac catheterization Varicose vein ligation and stripping CPT-4 37720 Ligation and division and complete stripping of long or short saphenous veins ICD-9 38.5 Ligation and stripping of varicose veins Endoscopic Procedures Bronchoscopy, diagnostic CPT-4 31622 Bronchoscopy; diagnostic, (flexible or rigid), with or without cell washing or brushing ICD-9 33.22 Fiber-optic bronchoscopy ICD-9 33.23 Other bronchoscopy Dilation of esophagus CPT-4 43455 Dilation of esophagus, by balloon or dilator; under fluoroscopic guidance CPT-4 43456 retrograde ICD-9 42.92 Dilation of esophagus Upper GI endoscopy, diagnostic CPT-4 43235 Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy including esophagus, stomach and either the duodenum, jejunum, or both, as appropriate; complex diagnostic ICD-9 44.13 Other endoscopy of small intestine Endoscopy of small intestine, diagnostic CPT-4 44360 Small intestinal endoscopy, enteroscopy beyond second portion of duodenum; diagnostic ICD-9 45.13 Other endoscopy of small intestine Colonoscopy, diagnostic CPT-4 45378 Colonoscopy, fiber-optic, beyond splenic flexure; diagnostic, with or without colon decompression ICD-9 45.23 Colonoscopy Sigmoidoscopy, diagnostic CPT-4 45330 Sigmoidoscopy, flexible fiber-optic; diagnostic ICD-9 45.24 Flexible sigmoidoscopy Operations on the Digestive System Cholecystectomy (gall bladder removal) CPT-4 49310 Laparoscopy, surgical; cholecystectomy (any method) ICD-9 51.23 Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Inguinal hernia repair CPT-4 49500 Repair inguinal hernia, under age 5 years, with or without hydrocelectomy CPT-4 49505 Repair inguinal hernia, age 5 or over ICD-9 53.00 Unilateral repair of inguinal hernia, not otherwise specified ICD-9 53.01 Repair of direct inguinal hernia ICD-9 53.02 Repair of indirect inguinal hernia Diagnostic laparoscopy CPT-4 58980 Laparoscopy, diagnostic (separate procedure) ICD-9 54.21 Laparoscopy Cystoscopy CPT-4 52000 Cystourethroscopy (separate procedure) ICD-9 57.32 Other cystoscopy Sterilization Vasectomy CPT-4 55250 Vasectomy, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure), including postoperative semen examination(s) ICD-9 63.73 Vasectomy Tubal ligation CPT-4 58982 Laparoscopy, surgical; with fulguration of oviducts (with or without transection) CPT-4 58983 with occlusion of oviducts by device (for example, band, clip, or Falope ring) ICD-9 66.21 Bilateral endoscopic ligation and crushing of fallopian tubes ICD-9 66.22 Bilateral endoscopic ligation and division of fallopian tubes ICD-9 66.29 Other bilateral endoscopic destruction or occlusion of fallopian tubes Gynecological Operations Conization of cervix CPT-4 57520 Conization of cervix, with or without fulguration, with or without dilation and curettage, with or without repair (any method) ICD-9 67.2 Conization of cervix Laser destruction of cervical lesion CPT-4 57513 Cauterization of cervix; laser ablation ICD-9 67.39 Other excision or destruction of lesion or tissue of cervix Diagnostic D & C CPT-4 58120 Dilation and curettage, diagnostic therapeutic (nonobstetrical), or both ICD-9 69.09 Other dilation and curettage Operations on the Musculoskeletal System Bunionectomy CPT-4 28110 Ostectomy, partial excision, fifth metatarsal head (bunionette) (separate procedure) CPT-4 28290 Hallux valgus (bunion) correction, with or without sesamoidectomy; simple exostectomy (Silver type procedure) CPT-4 28292 Keller, McBride or Mayo type procedure CPT-4 28293 resection of joint with implant CPT-4 28294 with tendon transplants (Joplin type procedure) CPT-4 28296 with metatarsal osteotomy (for example, Mitchell, Chevron, or concentric type procedures) CPT-4 28297 Lapidus type procedure CPT-4 28298 by phalanx osteotomy CPT-4 28299 by other methods (for example, double osteotomy) ICD-9 77.51 Bunionectomy with soft tissue correction and osteotomy of the first metatarsal ICD-9 77.52 Bunionectomy with soft tissue correction and arthrodesis ICD-9 77.53 Other bunionectomy with soft tissue correction ICD-9 77.54 Excision or correction of bunionette ICD-9 77.57 Repair of claw toe ICD-9 77.58 Other excision, fusion and repair of toes ICD-9 77.59 Other bunionectomy Hammertoe correction CPT-4 28285 Hammertoe operation; one toe (for example, interphalangeal fusion, filleting, phalangectomy) ICD-9 77.56 Repair of hammertoe Knee arthroscopy, diagnostic CPT-4 29870 Arthroscopy, knee, diagnostic, with or without synovial biopsy (separate procedure) ICD-9 80.26 Arthroscopy, knee ICD-9 80.36 Biopsy of joint structure, knee Knee arthroscopy, removal of cartilage CPT-4 29881 Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscectomy (medial OR lateral including any meniscal shaving) ICD-9 80.6 Excision of semilunar cartilage of knee Ganglionectomy, hand or wrist CPT-4 25111 Excision of ganglion, wrist (dorsal or volar); primary CPT-4 26160 Excision of lesion of tendon sheath or capsule (for example, cyst, mucous cyst, or ganglion), hand or finger ICD-9 82.21 Excision of lesion of tendon sheath of hand Operations on the Integumentary System Breast biopsy, incisional CPT-4 19101 Biopsy of breast; incisional ICD-9 85.12 Open biopsy of breast Removal of breast lesion CPT-4 19120 Excision of cyst, fibroadenoma, or other benign or malignant tumor, aberrant breast tissue, duct lesion or nipple lesion (except 19140), male or female, one or more lesions ICD-9 85.21 Local excision of lesion of breast Miscellaneous Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures CAT scan of head, without contrast CPT-4 70450 Computerized axial tomography, head or brain; without contrast material ICD-9 87.03 Computerized axial tomography of head CAT scan of head, with and without contrast CPT-4 70470 Computerized axial tomography, head or brain; without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sections ICD-9 87.03 Computerized axial tomography of head Contrast myelogram of spine CPT-4 61055 Cisternal or lateral cervical (C1-C2) puncture; with injection of drug or other substance for diagnosis or treatment (C1-C2) or CPT-4 62284 Injection procedure for myelography or computerized axial tomography, or both, spinal (other than C1-C2 and posterior fossa), plus CPT-4 72270 Myelography, entire spinal canal, radiological supervision and interpretation ICD-9 87.21 Contrast myelogram Mammography CPT-4 76092 Screening mammography, bilateral (two view film study of each breast) ICD-9 87.37 Other mammography (X-ray imaging of the breast, other than xerography) CAT scan of abdomen, without contrast CPT-4 74150 Computerized axial tomography, abdomen; without contrast material ICD-9 88.01 Computerized axial tomography of abdomen CAT scan of abdomen, with and without contrast CPT-4 74170 Computerized axial tomography, abdomen; without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sections ICD-9 88.01 Computerized axial tomography of abdomen Diagnostic ultrasound, abdomen and retroperitoneum CPT-4 76700 Echography, abdominal, B-scan or real time with image documentation, or both; complete CPT-4 76770 Echography, retroperitoneal (for example, renal, aorta, nodes), B-scan or real time with image documentation, or both; complete ICD-9 88.76 Diagnostic ultrasound of abdomen and retroperitoneum Diagnostic ultrasound, gravid uterus CPT-4 76805 Echography, pregnant uterus, B-scan or real time with image documentation, or both; complete (complete fetal and maternal evaluation) CPT-4 76810 complete (complete fetal and maternal evaluation), multiple gestation, after the first trimester ICD-9 88.78 Diagnostic ultrasound of gravid uterus Magnetic resonance imaging, brain, without contrast CPT-4 70551 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, brain (including brain stem); without contrast material ICD-9 88.91 Magnetic resonance imaging of brain and brain stem Magnetic resonance imaging, brain, with and without contrast CPT-4 70553 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, brain (including brain stem); without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sequences ICD-9 88.91 Magnetic resonance imaging of brain and brain stem Magnetic resonance imaging, spinal canal, without contrast CPT-4 72141 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, spinal canal and contents, cervical; without contrast material CPT-4 72146 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, spinal canal and contents, thoracic; without contrast material CPT-4 72148 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, spinal canal and contents, lumbar; without contrast material ICD-9 88.93 Magnetic resonance imaging of spinal canal Magnetic resonance imaging, spinal canal, with and without contrast CPT-4 72156 Magnetic resonance (for example, proton) imaging, spinal canal and contents, without contrast material, followed by contrast material(s) and further sequences; cervical CPT-4 72157 thoracic CPT-4 72158 lumbar ICD-9 88.93 Magnetic resonance imaging of spinal canal Treadmill stress test CPT-4 93015 Cardiovascular stress test using maximal or submaximal treadmill or bicycle exercise or pharmacological stress, or both; continuous electrocardiographic monitoring, with interpretation and report ICD-9 89.41 Cardiovascular stress test using treadmill Electrocardiogram CPT-4 93000 Electrocardiogram, routine ECG with at least 12 leads; with interpretation and report ICD-9 89.52 Electrocardiogram Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, kidney, ureter or bladder, or any combination of these CPT-4 50590 Lithotripsy, extracorporeal shockwave ICD-9 98.51 Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) of the kidney, ureter or bladder, or any combination of these *Charges for outpatient procedures shall include the facility’s total customary charges for a specific procedure or group of procedures defined according to ICD-9-CM or CPT-4 codes. Charges shall include fees associated with the preparation of the patient (preoperative phase), performance of the procedure (intraoperative phase) and recovery (postoperative phase): Preoperative phase includes those services and procedures that prepare the patient for the surgical procedure. It shall include, but is not limited to, charges for standard preoperative diagnostic laboratory testing, radiological services, preparatory pharmaceuticals (preoperative medications), skin preparation supplies, and the like. Intraoperative phase includes those services and procedures during the period of time of the actual surgical procedure itself (as identified by ICD-9-CM or CPT-4 code) as performed to eliminate or improve the patient’s diagnostic condition. It shall include, but is not limited to, room charges for the surgery suite, anesthesia and other intraoperative pharmaceuticals, equipment and supplies (drapes/barriers, electrocautery tips and grounding pads, specialized scalpel blades, dressing materials, casting materials and orthopedic supplies, and the like). Postoperative phase includes those services and procedures that are provided to the patient from the point at which the patient exits the surgery suite to the point at which the patient is discharged from the facility. It shall include, but is not limited to, charges for use of the recovery room, dressings, pharmaceuticals, respiratory therapy, supplies and the like. Professional fees for facility-based radiologists, pathologists, anesthesiologists and the like, if they are reported by the facility, shall be reported separately. AUTHORITY: section 192.667, RSMo 2000.* Emergency rule filed Nov. 4, 1992, effective Nov. 14, 1992, expired March 13, 1993. Emergency rule filed March 4, 1993, effective March 14, 1993, expired July 11, 1993. Original rule filed Nov. 4, 1992, effective June 7, 1993. Emergency amendment filed April 1, 1993, effective April 11, 1993, expired Aug. 8, 1993. Emergency amendment filed Aug. 10, 1993, effective Aug. 20, 1993, expired Nov. 18, 1993. Amended: Filed April 1, 1993, effective Dec. 9, 1993. Amended: Filed April 13, 2001, effective Oct. 30, 2001. *Original authority: 192.667, RSMo 1992, amended 1993, 1995.