S.C. Code Ann. Regs. 61-79.261
SUBPART A
General
261.1. Purpose and scope.
(a) This part identifies those solid wastes which are subject to regulation as hazardous wastes under Regulations R.61-79.124, .262 through .266, .268, .270, and 40 CFR 271, and which are subject to the notification requirements of the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act Sections 44-56-120 and section 3010 of RCRA. In this part: (revised 11/90; 12/92)
(4) Subpart D lists particular hazardous wastes.
(b)(1) The definition of solid waste contained in this part applies only to wastes that also are hazardous for purposes of the regulations implementing the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-10 et seq. and Subtitle C of RCRA. For example, it does not apply to materials (such as nonhazardous scrap, paper, textiles, or rubber) that are not otherwise hazardous wastes and that are recycled (revised 12/92; 12/93).
(2) This part identifies only some of the materials which are solid wastes and hazardous wastes under SCHWMA 44-56-10 et seq. and sections 3007, 3013, and 7003 of RCRA. A material which is not defined as a solid waste in this part, or is not a hazardous waste identified or listed in this part, is still a solid waste and a hazardous waste for purposes of these sections if:
(c) For the purposes of sections 261.2 and 261.6:
(5) A material is “used or reused” if it is either:
(d) [Reserved 5/06]
(2)
(i) A discarded material is any material that is:
261.2. Definition of solid waste.
(a)(1) A solid waste is any discarded material that is not excluded by Section 261.4(a) or that is not excluded by variance granted under R.61-79.260.30 and 260.31, or that is not excluded by a non-waste determination under R.61-79.260.30 and 260.34.
(b) Materials are solid waste if they are abandoned by being:
(c) Materials are solid wastes if they are recycled—or accumulated, stored, or treated before recycling—as specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4).
(1) Used in a manner constituting disposal.
(i) Materials noted with an “x” in Column 1 of Table 1 are solid wastes when they are:
(2) Burning for energy recovery.
(i) Materials noted with an “x” in column 2 of Table 1 are solid wastes when they are:
(4) Accumulated speculatively. Materials noted with an “*” in column 4 of Table 1 are solid wastes when accumulated speculatively.
| 261.2 Table 1 Summary of definitions of Solid Waste | ||||
| Use Constituting Disposal (261.2(c)(1)) | Energy Recovery/Fuel (261.2(c)(2)) | Reclamation (261.2(c)(3)), except as provided in 261.4(a)(17), 261.4(a)(23), 261.4(a)(24), or 261.4(a)(27) | Speculative Accumulation (261.2(c)(4)) | |
| (1) | (2) | (3) | (4) | |
| Spent Materials | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
| Sludges (listed in sections 261.31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
| Sludges exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | -- | (*) |
| By-products (listed in 261.31 or 261.32) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
| By-products exhibiting a characteristic of hazardous waste | (*) | (*) | - | (*) |
| Commercial chemical products listed in section 261.33 | (*) | (*) | -- | -- |
| Scrap metal that is not excluded under section 261.4(a)(13) | (*) | (*) | (*) | (*) |
Note: The terms “spent materials,” “sludges,” “by-products,” “scrap metal,” and “processed scrap metal” are defined in section 261.1.
(d) Inherently waste-like materials. The following materials are solid wastes when they are recycled in any manner:
(2) Secondary materials fed to a halogen acid furnace that exhibit a characteristic of a hazardous waste or are listed as a hazardous waste as defined in subparts C or D of this part, except for brominated material that meets the following criteria: (revised 12/92; 12/93).
(ii) The material must contain less than a total of 1% of toxic organic compounds listed in appendix VIII; and (added 12/93)
(iii) The material is processed continually on-site in the halogen acid furnace via direct conveyance (hard piping). (added 12/93)
(3) The Department will use the following criteria to add wastes to that list:
(i)(A) The materials are ordinarily disposed of, burned, or incinerated; or
(e) Materials that are not solid waste when recycled.
(1) Materials are not solid wastes when they can be shown to be recycled by being:
(ii) Used or reused as effective substitutes for commercial products; or
(iii) Returned to the original process from which they are generated, without first being reclaimed or land disposed. The material must be returned as a substitute for feedstock materials. In cases where the original process to which the material is returned is a secondary process, the materials must be managed such that there is no placement on the land. In cases where the materials are generated and reclaimed within the primary mineral processing industry, the conditions of the exclusion found at 261.4(a)(17) apply rather than this paragraph. (5/96, 11/99)
(2) The following materials are solid wastes, even if the recycling involves use, reuse, or return to the original process (described in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)-(iii):
(ii) Materials burned for energy recovery, used to produce a fuel, or contained in fuels; or
(iii) Materials accumulated speculatively; or
(g) Sham recycling. A hazardous secondary material found to be sham recycled is considered discarded and a solid waste. Sham recycling is recycling that is not legitimate recycling as defined in Section 260.43.
261.3. Definition of hazardous waste.
(a) A solid waste, as defined in 261.2, is a hazardous waste if: (11/99)
(2) It meets any of the following criteria:
(ii) It is listed in subpart D and has not been excluded from the lists in subpart D under 260.20 and 260.22 of this chapter.
(iii) [Reserved] (11/90; 12/93)
(iv) It is a mixture of solid waste and one or more hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part and has not been excluded from this paragraph (a)(2) of this section under 260.20 and 260.22, paragraph (g) of this section, or paragraph (h) of this section; however, the following mixtures of solid wastes and hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part are not hazardous wastes (except by application of paragraph (a)(2) (i) or (ii) of this section) if the generator can demonstrate that the mixture consists of wastewater the discharge of which is subject to regulation under the S. C. Pollution Control Act Section 48-1-10 et seq., of the S. C. Code of Laws of 1976, as amended and under either section 402 or section 307(b) of the Clean Water Act (including wastewater at facilities which have eliminated the discharge of wastewater) and: (11/90; 12/93)
(v) Rebuttable presumption for used oil. Used oil containing more than 1000 ppm total halogens is presumed to be a hazardous waste because it has been mixed with halogenated hazardous waste listed in subpart D of part 261 of this chapter. Persons may rebut this presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous waste (for example, by using an analytical method from SW-846, Third Edition, to show that the used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents listed in appendix VIII of part 261 of this chapter). EPA Publication SW-846, Third Edition, is available for the cost of $110.00 from the Government Printing Office, Superintendent of Documents, PO Box 371954, Pittsburgh, PA 15250-7954, 202-783-3238 (document number 955-001-00000-1).
(b) A solid waste which is not excluded from regulation under paragraph (a)(1) becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events occur:
(c) Unless and until it meets the criteria of paragraph (d) of this part:
(1) A hazardous waste will remain a hazardous waste.
(ii) The following solid wastes are not hazardous even though they are generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, unless they exhibit one or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste:
(B) Waste from burning any of the materials exempted from regulation by section 261.6(a)(3)(iii) and (iv) (12/92; 5/96).
(C)(1) Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, resulting from high temperature metals recovery (HTMR) processing of K061, K062, or F006 waste, in units identified as rotary kilns, flame reactors, electric furnaces, plasma arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth furnace/electric furnace combinations or industrial furnaces (as defined in paragraphs (6), (7), and (13) of the definition for Industrial furnace” in 260.10), that are disposed in subtitle D units, provided that these residues meet the generic exclusion levels identified in the tables in this paragraph for all constituents, and exhibit no characteristics of hazardous waste. Testing requirements must be incorporated in a facility’s waste analysis plan or a generator’s self-implementing waste analysis plan; at a minimum, composite samples of residues must be collected and analyzed quarterly and/or when the process or operation generating the waste changes. Persons claiming this exclusion in an enforcement action will have the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements. (revised 12/92; 12/93)
(E) Catalyst inert support media separated from one of the following wastes listed in 261.32 Spent hydrotreating catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K171), and Spent hydrorefining catalyst (EPA Hazardous Waste No. K172).
| CONSTITUENT | Maximum for any single composite sample (mg/l) | |
| Generic exclusion levels for K061 and K062 nonwastewater HTMR residues | ||
| Antimony | 0.10 | |
| Arsenic | 0.50 | |
| Barium | 7.6 | |
| Beryllium | 0.010 | |
| Cadmium | 0.050 | |
| Chromium (total) | 0.33 | |
| Lead | 0.15 | |
| Mercury | 0.009 | |
| Nickel | 1.0 | |
| Selenium | 0.16 | |
| Silver | 0.30 | |
| Thallium | 0.020 | |
| Zinc | 70. | |
| Generic exclusion levels for F006 nonwastewater HTMR residues | ||
| Antimony | 0.10 | |
| Arsenic | 0.50 | |
| Barium | 7.6 | |
| Beryllium | 0.010 | |
| Cadmium | 0.050 | |
| Chromium (total) | 0.33 | |
| Cyanide (total) (mg/kg) | 1.8 | |
| Lead | 0.15 | |
| Mercury | 0.009 | |
| Nickel | 1.0 | |
| Selenium | 0.16 | |
| Silver | 0.30 | |
| Thallium | 0.020 | |
| Zinc | 70. |
(2)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii), (g) or (h), any solid waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash emission control dust, or leachate (but not including precipitation run-off) is a hazardous waste. (However, materials that are reclaimed from solid wastes and that are used beneficially are not solid wastes and hence are not hazardous wastes under this provision unless the reclaimed material is burned for energy recovery or used in a manner constituting disposal.) (6/02)
(d) Any solid waste described in paragraph (c) is not a hazardous waste if it meets the following criteria:
(f) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section and provided the debris as defined in part 268 of this chapter does not exhibit a characteristic identified at subpart C of this part, the following materials are not subject to regulation under 260, 261 to 266, 268, or 270: (added 12/93)
(2) Debris as defined in part 268 of this chapter that the Department, considering the extent of contamination, has determined is no longer contaminated with hazardous waste. (added 12/93)
(g)(1) A hazardous waste that is listed in subpart D of this part solely because it exhibits one or more characteristics of ignitability as defined under 261.21, corrosivity as defined under 261.22, or reactivity as defined under 261.23 is not a hazardous waste, if the waste no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in subpart C of this part.
(2) The exclusion described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section also pertains to:
(4) Any mixture of a solid waste excluded from regulation under 261.4(b)(7) and a hazardous waste listed in Subpart D solely because it exhibits one or more of the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity as regulated under paragraph (a)(2)(iv) is not a hazardous waste, if the mixture no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in Subpart C for which the hazardous waste listed in Subpart D was listed.
(h)(1) Hazardous waste containing radioactive waste is no longer a hazardous waste when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of 266, Subpart N (“eligible radioactive mixed waste”).
(2) The exemption described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section also pertains to:
(3) Waste exempted under this section must meet the eligibility criteria and specified conditions in 266.225 and 266.230 (for storage and treatment). Waste that fails to satisfy these eligibility criteria and conditions is regulated as hazardous waste.
261.4. Exclusions.
(a) Materials which are not solid wastes. The following materials are not solid wastes for the purpose of this part:
(2) Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source discharges subject to regulation under Section 48-1-10 et seq., of the S. C. Code of Laws of 1976, and section 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended.
[Comment: This exclusion applies only to the actual point source discharge. It does not exclude industrial wastewaters while they are being collected, stored or treated before discharge, nor does it exclude sludges that are generated by industrial wastewater treatment] (revised 12/92).
(8) Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the original process or processes in which they were generated where they are reused in the production process provided:
(ii) Reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion (such as occurs in boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators);
(iii) The secondary materials are never accumulated in such tanks for over twelve months without being reclaimed; and
(iv) The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel, or used to produce products that are used in a manner constituting disposal.
(9)(i) Spent wood preserving solutions that have been reclaimed and are reused for their original intended purpose; and
(ii) Wastewaters from the wood preserving process that have been reclaimed and are reused to treat wood.
(iii) Prior to reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions described in paragraphs (a)(9)(i) and (a)(9)(ii) of this section, so long as they meet all of the following conditions:
(11) Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment of K061 in high temperature metals recovery units, provided it is shipped in drums (if shipped) and not land disposed before recovery.
(12)(i) Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials (i.e., sludges, byproducts, or spent materials) that are generated at a petroleum refinery (SIC code 2911) and are inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911 - including, but not limited to, distillation, catalytic cracking, fractionation, or thermal cracking units (i.e., cokers)) unless the material is placed on the land, or speculatively accumulated before being so recycled. Materials inserted into thermal cracking units are excluded under this paragraph, provided that the coke product also does not exhibit a characteristic of hazardous waste. Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials may be inserted into the same petroleum refinery where they are generated, or sent directly to another petroleum refinery, and still be excluded under this provision. Except, as provided in paragraph (a)(12)(ii) of this section, oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials generated elsewhere in the petroleum industry (i.e., from sources other than petroleum refineries) are not excluded under this section. Residuals generated from processing or recycling materials excluded under this paragraph (a)(12)(i), where such materials as generated would have otherwise met a listing under subpart D of this part, are designated as F037 listed wastes when disposed of or intended for disposal.
(14) Shredded circuit boards being recycled provided that they are:
(17) Spent materials (as defined in 261.1) (other than hazardous wastes listed in subpart D of this part) generated within the primary mineral processing industry from which minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or other values are recovered by mineral processing or by beneficiation, provided that: (11/99; 8/00)
(ii) The spent material is not accumulated speculatively;
(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(17)(iv) of this section, the spent material is stored in tanks, containers, or buildings meeting the following minimum integrity standards: a building must be an engineered structure with a floor, walls, and a roof all of which are made of non-earthen materials providing structural support (except smelter buildings may have partially earthen floors provided the secondary material is stored on the non-earthen portion), and have a roof suitable for diverting rainwater away from the foundation; a tank must be free standing, not be a surface impoundment (as defined in 260.10), and be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents; a container must be free standing and be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents. If tanks or containers contain any particulate which may be subject to wind dispersal, the owner/operator must operate these units in a manner which controls fugitive dust. Tanks, containers, and buildings must be designed, constructed and operated to prevent significant releases to the environment of these materials. (8/00)
(iv) The Department may make a site-specific determination, after public review and comment, that only solid mineral processing spent material may be placed on pads rather than tanks, containers, or buildings. Solid mineral processing spent materials do not contain any free liquid. The decision-maker must affirm that pads are designed, constructed and operated to prevent significant releases of the secondary material into the environment. Pads must provide the same degree of containment afforded by the non-RCRA tanks, containers and buildings eligible for exclusion.
(18) Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical manufacturing facility, where the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911) along with normal petroleum refinery process streams, provided:
(20) Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, provided that the following conditions specified are satisfied:
(ii) Generators and intermediate handlers of zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers must:
(B) Store the excluded secondary material in tanks, containers, or buildings that are constructed and maintained in a way that prevents releases of the secondary materials into the environment. At a minimum, any building used for this purpose must be an engineered structure made of non-earthen materials that provide structural support, and must have a floor, walls and a roof that prevent wind dispersal and contact with rainwater. Tanks used for this purpose must be structurally sound and, if outdoors, must have roofs or covers that prevent contact with wind and rain. Containers used for this purpose must be kept closed except when it is necessary to add or remove material, and must be in sound condition. Containers that are stored outdoors must be managed within storage areas that:
(D) Maintain at the generator’s or intermediate handler’s facility for no less than three years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. For each shipment these records must at a minimum contain the following information:
(3) Type and quantity of excluded secondary material in each shipment.
(iii) Manufacturers of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients made from excluded hazardous secondary materials must:
(21) Zinc fertilizers made from hazardous wastes, or hazardous secondary materials that are excluded under paragraph (a)(20) of this section, provided that:
(i) The fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits:
(A) For metal contaminants:
| Constituent | Maximum Allowable Total Concentration in Fertilizer, per Unit (1%) of Zinc (ppm) |
| Arsenic | 0.3 |
| Cadmium | 1.4 |
| Chromium | 0.6 |
| Lead | 2.8 |
| Mercury | 0.3 |
(ii) The manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer product to determine compliance with the contaminant limits for metals no less than every six months, and for dioxins no less than every twelve months. Testing must also be performed whenever changes occur to manufacturing processes or ingredients that could significantly affect the amounts of contaminants in the fertilizer product. The manufacturer may use any reliable analytical method to demonstrate that no constituent of concern is present in the product at concentrations above the applicable limits. It is the responsibility of the manufacturer to ensure that the sampling and analysis are unbiased, precise, and representative of the product(s) introduced into commerce.
(iii) The manufacturer maintains for no less than three years records of all sampling and analyses performed for purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(21)(ii) of this section. Such records must at a minimum include:
(22) Used Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs)
(ii) Used, intact CRTs as defined in Sec. 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes when exported for recycling provided that they meet the requirements of Sec. 261.40.
(iii) Used, broken CRTs as defined in Sec. 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes provided that they meet the requirements of 261.39.
(23) Hazardous secondary material generated and legitimately reclaimed within the United States or its territories and under the control of the generator, provided that the material complies with paragraphs (a)(23)(i) and (ii) of this section:
(C) The hazardous secondary material is generated pursuant to a written contract between a tolling contractor and a toll manufacturer and is reclaimed by the tolling contractor, if the tolling contractor certifies the following: “On behalf of [insert tolling contractor name], I certify that [insert tolling contractor name] has a written contract with [insert toll manufacturer name] to manufacture [insert name of product or intermediate] which is made from specified unused materials, and that [insert tolling contractor name] will reclaim the hazardous secondary materials generated during this manufacture. On behalf of [insert tolling contractor name], I also certify that [insert tolling contractor name] retains ownership of, and responsibility for, the hazardous secondary materials that are generated during the course of the manufacture, including any releases of hazardous secondary materials that occur during the manufacturing process”. The tolling contractor must maintain at its facility for no less than three (3) years records of hazardous secondary materials received pursuant to its written contract with the tolling manufacturer, and the tolling manufacturer must maintain at its facility for no less than three (3) years records of hazardous secondary materials shipped pursuant to its written contract with the tolling contractor. In both cases, the records must contain the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, and the type and quantity of the hazardous secondary material shipped or received pursuant to the written contract. These requirements may be satisfied by routine business records (e.g., financial records, bills of lading, copies of DOT shipping papers, or electronic confirmations). For purposes of this paragraph, tolling contractor means a person who arranges for the production of a product or intermediate made from specified unused materials through a written contract with a toll manufacturer. Toll manufacturer means a person who produces a product or intermediate made from specified unused materials pursuant to a written contract with a tolling contractor.
(ii)(A) The hazardous secondary material is contained as defined in section 260.10. A hazardous secondary material released to the environment is discarded and a solid waste unless it is immediately recovered for the purpose of reclamation. Hazardous secondary material managed in a unit with leaks or other continuing or intermittent unpermitted releases is discarded and a solid waste.
(i)(A) The hazardous secondary material is generated and reclaimed at the generating facility (for purposes of this definition, generating facility means all contiguous property owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by the hazardous secondary material generator); or
(24) Hazardous secondary material that is generated and then transferred to another person for the purpose of reclamation is not a solid waste, provided that:
(ii) The material is not handled by any person or facility other than the hazardous secondary material generator, the transporter, an intermediate facility or a reclaimer, and, while in transport, is not stored for more than ten (10) days at a transfer facility, as defined in section 260.10, and is packaged according to applicable DOT regulations at 49 CFR parts 173, 178, and 179 while in transport;
(iii) The material is not otherwise subject to material-specific management conditions under paragraph (a) of this section when reclaimed, and it is not a spent lead-acid battery (see sections 266.80 and 273.2);
(v) The hazardous secondary material generator satisfies all of the following conditions:
(B) Prior to arranging for transport of hazardous secondary materials to a reclamation facility (or facilities) where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards, the hazardous secondary material generator must make reasonable efforts to ensure that each reclaimer intends to properly and legitimately reclaim the hazardous secondary material and not discard it, and that each reclaimer will manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment. If the hazardous secondary material will be passing through an intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards, the hazardous secondary material generator must make contractual arrangements with the intermediate facility to ensure that the hazardous secondary material is sent to the reclamation facility identified by the hazardous secondary material generator, and the hazardous secondary material generator must perform reasonable efforts to ensure that the intermediate facility will manage the hazardous secondary material in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment. Reasonable efforts must be repeated at a minimum of every three (3) years for the hazardous secondary material generator to claim the exclusion and to send the hazardous secondary materials to each reclaimer and any intermediate facility. In making these reasonable efforts, the generator may use any credible evidence available, including information gathered by the hazardous secondary material generator, provided by the reclaimer or intermediate facility, and/or provided by a third party. The hazardous secondary material generator must affirmatively answer all of the following questions for each reclamation facility and any intermediate facility:
(C) The hazardous secondary material generator must maintain for a minimum of three (3) years documentation and certification that reasonable efforts were made for each reclamation facility and, if applicable, intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA part B permit or interim status standards prior to transferring hazardous secondary material.
Documentation and certification must be made available upon request by a regulatory authority within seventy-two (72) hours, or within a longer period of time as specified by the regulatory authority. The certification statement must:
(D) The hazardous secondary material generator must maintain at the generating facility for no less than three (3) years records of all off-site shipments of hazardous secondary materials. For each shipment, these records must, at a minimum, contain the following information:
(vi) Reclaimers of hazardous secondary material excluded from regulation under this exclusion and intermediate facilities as defined in section 260.10 satisfy all of the following conditions:
(A) The reclaimer and intermediate facility must maintain at its facility for no less than three (3) years records of all shipments of hazardous secondary material that were received at the facility and, if applicable, for all shipments of hazardous secondary materials that were received and subsequently sent off-site from the facility for further reclamation. For each shipment, these records must at a minimum contain the following information:
(F) The reclaimer and intermediate facility have financial assurance as required under R.61-79.261 subpart H,
(vii) In addition, all persons claiming the exclusion under paragraph (a)(24) of this section must provide notification as required under section 260.42.
(25) Hazardous secondary material that is exported from the United States and reclaimed at a reclamation facility located in a foreign country is not a solid waste, provided that the hazardous secondary material generator complies with the applicable requirements of paragraph (a)(24)(i) through (v) of this section (excepting paragraph (a)(24)(v)(B)(2) of this section for foreign reclaimers and foreign intermediate facilities), and that the hazardous secondary material generator also complies with the following requirements:
(i) Notify EPA of an intended export before the hazardous secondary material is scheduled to leave the United States. A complete notification must be submitted at least sixty (60) days before the initial shipment is intended to be shipped off-site. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period. The notification must be in writing, signed by the hazardous secondary material generator, and include the following information:
(ii) Notifications must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system.
(iii) Except for changes to the telephone number in paragraph (a)(25)(i)(A) of this section and decreases in the quantity of hazardous secondary material indicated pursuant to paragraph (a)(25)(i)(D) of this section, when the conditions specified on the original notification change (including any exceedance of the estimate of the quantity of hazardous secondary material specified in the original notification), the hazardous secondary material generator must provide EPA with a written renotification of the change. The shipment cannot take place until consent of the country of import to the changes (except for changes to paragraph (a)(25)(i)(I) of this section and in the ports of entry to and departure from countries of transit pursuant to paragraphs (a)(25)(i)(E) of this section) has been obtained and the hazardous secondary material generator receives from EPA an EPA Acknowledgment of Consent reflecting the country of import’s consent to the changes.
(vi) The export of hazardous secondary material under this paragraph (a)(25) is prohibited unless the country of import consents to the intended export. When the country of import consents in writing to the receipt of the hazardous secondary material, EPA will send an EPA Acknowledgment of Consent to the hazardous secondary material generator. Where the country of import objects to receipt of the hazardous secondary material or withdraws a prior consent, EPA will notify the hazardous secondary material generator in writing. EPA will also notify the hazardous secondary material generator of any responses from countries of transit.
(vii) For exports to OECD Member countries, the receiving country may respond to the notification using tacit consent. If no objection has been lodged by any country of import or countries of transit to a notification provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(25)(i) of this section within thirty (30) days after the date of issuance of the acknowledgement of receipt of notification by the competent authority of the country of import, the transboundary movement may commence. In such cases, EPA will send an EPA Acknowledgment of Consent to inform the hazardous secondary material generator that the country of import and any relevant countries of transit have not objected to the shipment, and are thus presumed to have consented tacitly. Tacit consent expires one (1) calendar year after the close of the thirty (30) day period; renotification and renewal of all consents is required for exports after that date.
(viii) A copy of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent must accompany the shipment. The shipment must conform to the terms of the EPA Acknowledgment of Consent.
(xi) Hazardous secondary material generators must file with the Administrator no later than March 1 of each year, a report summarizing the types, quantities, frequency, and ultimate destination of all hazardous secondary materials exported during the previous calendar year. Annual reports must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system. Such reports must include the following information:
(E) A certification signed by the hazardous secondary material generator which states: “I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents, and that based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(xii) All persons claiming an exclusion under this paragraph (a)(25) must provide notification as required by section 260.42.
(26) Solvent-contaminated wipes that are sent for cleaning and reuse are not solid wastes from the point of generation, provided that:
(ii) The solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180 days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent for cleaning;
(iii) At the point of being sent for cleaning on-site or at the point of being transported off-site for cleaning, the solvent-contaminated wipes must contain no free liquids as defined in Section 260.10 of this chapter.
(v) Generators must maintain at their site the following documentation:
(27) Hazardous secondary material that is generated and then transferred to another person for the purpose of remanufacturing is not a solid waste, provided that:
(ii) The hazardous secondary material originated from using one (1) or more of the solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section in a commercial grade for reacting, extracting, purifying, or blending chemicals (or for rinsing out the process lines associated with these functions) in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510).
(iii) The hazardous secondary material generator sends the hazardous secondary material spent solvents listed in paragraph (a)(27)(i) of this section to a remanufacturer in the pharmaceutical manufacturing (NAICS 325412), basic organic chemical manufacturing (NAICS 325199), plastics and resins manufacturing (NAICS 325211), and/or the paints and coatings manufacturing sectors (NAICS 325510).
(vi) Both the hazardous secondary material generator and the remanufacturer must:
(B) Develop and maintain an up-to-date remanufacturing plan which identifies:
(1)(i) Domestic sewage; and
(b) Solid wastes which are not hazardous wastes. The following solid wastes are not hazardous wastes:
(1) Household waste, including household waste that has been collected, transported, stored, treated, disposed, recovered (e.g., refuse-derived fuel) or reused. “Household waste” means any material (including garbage, trash and sanitary wastes in septic tanks) derived from households (including single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds and day use recreation areas). A resource recovery facility managing municipal solid waste shall not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of these regulations, if such facility:
(i) Receives and burns only
(2) Solid wastes generated by any of the following and which are returned to the soils as fertilizers:
(5) Drilling fluids, produced waters, and other wastes associated with the exploration, development, or production of crude oil, natural gas or geothermal energy.
(ii) Specific wastes which meet the standard in paragraphs (b)(6)(i) (A), (B), and (C) (so long as they do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent, and do not exhibit any other characteristic) are: (amended 11/90)
(6)(i) Wastes which fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic because chromium is present or are listed in Subpart D due to the presence of chromium, which do not fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic for any other constituent or are not listed due to the presence of any other constituent, and which do not fail the test for any other characteristic, if it is shown by a waste generator or by waste generators that:
(7) Solid waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals (including coal, phosphate rock and overburden from the mining of uranium ore), except as provided by 266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste. For purposes of 261.4(b)(7), beneficiation of ores and minerals is restricted to the following activities: Crushing; grinding; washing; dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting; sizing; drying; sintering; pelletizing; briquetting; calcining to remove water and/or carbon dioxide; roasting, autoclaving, and/or chlorination in preparation for leaching (except where the roasting (and/or autoclaving and/or chlorination)/leaching sequence produces a final or intermediate product that does not undergo further beneficiation or processing); gravity concentration; magnetic separation; electrostatic separation; flotation; ion exchange; solvent extraction; electrowinning; precipitation; amalgamation; and heap, dump, vat, tank, and in situ leaching. For the purposes of 261.4(b)(7), solid waste from the processing of ores and minerals includes only the following wastes:
(ii) For the purposes of 261.4(b)(7), solid waste from the processing of ores and minerals includes only the following wastes as generated:
(T) Slag from primary zinc processing.
(iii) A residue derived from co-processing mineral processing secondary materials with normal beneficiation raw materials or with normal mineral processing raw materials remains excluded under paragraph (b) of this section if the owner or operator: (11/99)
(13) Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with wastes listed in Subpart D of this part if these oil filters have been gravity hot-drained using one of the following methods:
(ii) Hot-draining and crushing;
(iii) Dismantling and hot-draining; or
(15) Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where certain solid wastes have been disposed, provided that: (8/00, 6/03)
(ii) The solid wastes described in paragraph (b)(15)(i) of this section were disposed prior to the effective date of the listing;
(iii) The leachate or gas condensate do not exhibit any characteristic of hazardous waste nor are derived from any other listed hazardous waste;
(18) Solvent-contaminated wipes, except for wipes that are hazardous waste due to the presence of trichloroethylene, that are sent for disposal are not hazardous wastes from the point of generation provided that:
(ii) The solvent-contaminated wipes may be accumulated by the generator for up to 180 days from the start date of accumulation for each container prior to being sent for disposal;
(iii) At the point of being transported for disposal, the solvent-contaminated wipes must contain no free liquids as defined in section 260.10 of this chapter.
(v) Generators must maintain at their site the following documentation:
(vi) The solvent-contaminated wipes are sent for disposal:
(d) Samples. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) and (4) of this section, a sample of solid waste or a sample of water, soil, or air, which is collected for the sole purpose of testing to determine its characteristics or composition, is not subject to any requirements of this part or parts 262 through 268 or part 270 or part 124 of this chapter or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA and the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120 when: (amended 11/90)
(ii) The sample is being transported back to the sample collector after testing; or
(iii) The sample is being stored by the sample collector before transport to a laboratory for testing; or
(2) In order to qualify for the exemption in paragraph (d)(1)(i) and (ii), a sample collector shipping samples to a laboratory and a laboratory returning samples to a sample collector must:
(ii) Comply with the following requirements if the sample collector determines that DOT, USPS, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample:
(A) Assure that the following information accompanies the sample:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) and (4) of this section, persons who generate or collect samples for the purpose of conducting treatability studies as defined in R.61-79.260.10, are not subject to any requirement of R.61-79.261 through 263 or to the notification requirements of SC Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120 and Section 3010 of RCRA, nor are such samples included in the quantity determinations of R.61-79.262.13 when:
(ii) The sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or sample collector prior to transportation to a laboratory or testing facility; or
(iii) The sample is being transported to the laboratory or testing facility for the purpose of conducting a treatability study.
(2) The exemption in paragraph (e)(1) is applicable to samples of hazardous waste being collected and shipped for the purpose of conducting treatability studies provided that:
(ii) The mass of each sample shipment does not exceed 10,000 kg; the 10,000 kg quantity may be all media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, or may include 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste, 1000 kg of hazardous waste, and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste; and
(B) If the DOT, USPS, South Carolina Public Service Commission or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample, the following information must accompany the sample:
(iii) The sample must be packaged so that it will not leak, spill, or vaporize from its packaging during shipment and the requirements of paragraph A or B of this subparagraph are met.
(v) The generator or sample collector maintains the following records for a period ending 3 years after completion of the treatability study:
(C) Documentation showing:
(3) The Department may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up to an additional two years for treatability studies involving bioremediation. The Department may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for quantity limits in excess of those specified in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (ii) and (f)(4) of this section, for up to an additional 5000 kg of media contaminated with non-acute hazardous waste, 500 kg of non-acute hazardous waste, 2500 kg of media contaminated with acute hazardous waste and 1 kg of acute hazardous waste;
(ii) In response to requests for authorization to ship, store and conduct treatability studies on additional quantities after initiation or completion of initial treatability studies, when: There has been an equipment or mechanical failure during the conduct of a treatability study; there is a need to verify the results of a previously conducted treatability study; there is a need to study and analyze alternative techniques within a previously evaluated treatment process; or there is a need to do further evaluation of an ongoing treatability study to determine final specifications for treatment.
(iii) The additional quantities and time frames allowed in paragraph (e)(3) (i) and (ii) of this section are subject to all the provisions in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2)(iii) through (vi) of this section. The generator or sample collector must apply to the Department and provide in writing the following information:
(f) Samples Undergoing Treatability Studies at Laboratories and Testing Facilities. Samples undergoing treatability studies and the laboratory or testing facility conducting such treatability studies (to the extent such facilities are not otherwise subject to RCRA requirements) are not subject to any requirement of this part, part 124, parts 262 through 266, 268, and 270, or to the notification requirements SCHWMA 44-56-120 and Section 3010 of RCRA provided that the conditions of paragraphs (f) (1) through (11) of this section are met. A mobile treatment unit (MTU) may qualify as a testing facility subject to paragraphs (f) (1) through (11) of this section. Where a group of MTUs are located at the same site, the limitations specified in (f) (1) through (11) of this section apply to the entire group of MTUs collectively as if the group were one MTU. (amended 11/90)
(7) The facility maintains records for 3 years following completion of each study that show compliance with the treatment rate limits and the storage time and quantity limits. The following specific information must be included for each treatability study conducted:
(ii) The date the shipment was received;
(iii) The quantity of waste accepted;
(vi) The date the treatability study was concluded;
(vii) The date any unused sample or residues generated from the treatability study were returned to the generator or sample collector or, if sent to a designated facility, the name of the facility and the EPA identification number.
(8) The facility keeps, onsite, a copy of the treatability study contract and all shipping papers associated with the transport of treatability study samples to and from the facility for a period ending 3 years from the completion date of each treatability study.
(ii) The types (by process) of treatability studies conducted;
(iii) The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been conducted (including their EPA identification numbers);
(vi) When each treatability study was conducted;
(vii) The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each treatability study.
(f)(9) The facility prepares and submits a report to the Department by March 15 of each year, that includes the following information for the previous calendar year:
(g) Dredged material that is not a hazardous waste. Dredged material that is subject to the requirements of a permit that has been issued under 404 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (33 U.S.C.1344) or section 103 of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 U.S.C. 1413) is not a hazardous waste. For this paragraph (g), the following definitions apply:
(2) The term permit means:
(ii) A permit issued by the Corps under section 103 of the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972 (33 U.S.C. 1413); or
(iii) In the case of Corps civil works projects, the administrative equivalent of the permits referred to in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as provided for in Corps regulations (for example, see 33 CFR 336.1, 336.2, and 337.6).
(i) [Reserved]
(ii) The airbag waste is packaged in a container designed to address the risk posed by the airbag waste and labeled “Airbag Waste - Do Not Reuse”;
(iii) The airbag waste is sent directly to either:
(3) Reuse in vehicles of defective airbag modules or defective airbag inflators subject to a recall under the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration is considered sham recycling and prohibited under 261.2(g).
261.5. Reserved.
261.6. Requirements for recyclable materials.
(a)(1) Hazardous wastes that are recycled are subject to the requirements for generators, transporters, and storage facilities of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, except for the materials listed in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section. Hazardous wastes that are recycled will be known as “recyclable materials.”
(2) The following recyclable materials are not subject to the requirements of this section but are regulated under subparts C through N of R.61-79.266 and all applicable provisions in R.61-79.268, 270, and 124.
(ii) Hazardous wastes burned (as defined in section 266.100(a)) in boilers and industrial furnaces that are not regulated under subpart O of R.61-79.264 or 265 (R.61-79.266 subpart H);
(iii) Recyclable materials from which precious metals are reclaimed (R.61-79.266 subpart F);
(3) The following recyclable materials are not subject to regulation under R.61-79.124, 262 through 268, or 270 and are not subject to the notification requirements of the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120 and section 3010 RCRA.
(i) Industrial ethyl alcohol that is reclaimed except that exports and imports of such recyclable materials must comply with the requirements of R.61-79.262 subpart H.
(ii) Scrap metal that is not excluded under 261.4(a)(13). (10/01);
(iii) Fuels produced from the refining of oil-bearing hazardous waste along with normal process streams at a petroleum refining facility if such wastes result from normal petroleum refining, production, and transportation practices (this exemption does not apply to fuels produced from oil recovered from oil-bearing hazardous waste, where such recovered oil is already excluded under 261.4(a)(12); (10/01)
(iv)(A) Hazardous waste fuel produced from oil-bearing hazardous wastes from petroleum refining, production, or transportation practices, or produced from oil reclaimed from such hazardous wastes, where such hazardous wastes are reintroduced into a process that does not use distillation or does not produce products from crude oil so long as the resulting fuel meets the used oil specification under R.61-79.107.279 and so long as no other hazardous wastes are used to produce the hazardous waste fuel; (12/92, 5/96, 6/03)
(j)(1) Airbag waste at the airbag waste handler or during transport to an airbag waste collection facility or designated facility is not subject to regulation under parts 124, 262 through parts 268, or 270 of this chapter, and is not subject to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA provided that:
(b) Generators and transporters of recyclable materials are subject to the applicable requirements of R.61-79.262 and R.61-79.263 of these Regulations, and the notification requirements under 44-56-120 and Section 3010 of RCRA, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section.
(2) Owners or operators of facilities that recycle recyclable materials without storing them before they are recycled are subject to the following requirements, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
(ii) Sections 265.71 and 265.72 (dealing with the use of the manifest and manifest discrepancies) of R.61-79.265.
(iii) Section 261.6(d) of this chapter.
(c)(1) Owners and operators of facilities that store recyclable materials before they are recycled are regulated under all applicable provisions of subparts A through L, AA, BB and CC of R.61-79.264 and R.61-79.265, and under R.61-79.266, R.61-79.268, R.61-79.270, and R.61-79.124 and the notification requirements of section 3010 RCRA and the notification requirements of the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120, except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section. (The recycling process itself is exempt from regulation except as provided in 261.6(d).) (amended 11/90; 12/92)
(d) Owners or operators of facilities subject to RCRA permitting requirements with hazardous waste management units that recycle hazardous wastes are subject to the requirements of subparts AA and BB of parts 264 or 265 of this chapter.
(2) Any hazardous waste in either (i) a container that is not empty or (ii) an inner liner removed from a container that is not empty, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, is subject to regulation under R.61-79.261 through R.61-79.266, and R.61-79.268, R.61-79.124, and R.61-79.270 and to the notification requirements of section 3010 RCRA and the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120. (amended 11/90)
(ii) No more than 2.5 centimeters (one inch) of residue remain on the bottom of the container or inner liner, or
(iii)(A) No more than 3 percent by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is less than or equal to 119 gallons in size; or
(b)(1) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held any hazardous waste, except a waste that is a compressed gas or that is identified as an acute hazardous waste listed in sections 261.31 or 261.33(e) of this regulation, is empty if:
(3) A container or an inner liner removed from a container that has held an acute hazardous waste listed in sections 261.31or 261.33(e) of this regulation is empty if:
(ii) the container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method that has been shown in the scientific literature, or by tests conducted by the generator, to achieve equivalent removal; or
(iii) in the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented contact of the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate with the container, has been removed.
261.7. Residues of hazardous waste in empty containers.
(a)(1) Any hazardous waste remaining in either (i) an empty container or (ii) an inner liner removed from an empty container, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, is not subject to regulation under R.61-79.261 through R.61-79.266, or R.61-79.268, R.61-79.124, and R.61-79.270 or to the notification requirements of Section 3010 RCRA and the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120. (amended 11/90)
(c) Containers of hazardous waste pharmaceuticals are subject to section 266.507 for determining when they are considered empty, in lieu of this section, except as provided by sections 266.507(c) and (d).
261.8. PCB wastes regulated under Toxic Substance Control Act.
The disposal of PCB-containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment containing such fluid authorized for use and regulated under 40 CFR 761 and that are hazardous only because they fail the test for the Toxicity Characteristic (Hazardous Waste Codes D018 through D043 only) are exempt from regulation under parts 261 through 266, and parts 268, 270, and 124, and the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA and the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act 44-56-120. (amended 11/90)
261.9. Requirements for Universal Waste.
The wastes listed in this section are exempt from regulation under parts 262 through 270 except as specified in part 273 and, therefore, are not fully regulated as hazardous waste. The wastes listed in this section are subject to regulation under 273:
(e) Aerosol cans as described in 273.6 of this chapter.
SUBPART B
Criteria for Identifying the Characteristics of Hazardous Waste and for Listing Hazardous Wastes
261.10. Criteria for identifying the characteristics of hazardous waste.
(a) The Department shall identify and define a characteristic of hazardous waste in subpart C only upon determination that:
(1) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic may:
(2) The characteristic can be:
(ii) Reasonably detected by generators of solid waste through their knowledge of their waste.
261.11. Criteria for listing hazardous waste.
(a) The Department shall list a solid waste as a hazardous waste only upon determining that the solid waste meets one of the following criteria:
(3) It contains any of the toxic constituents listed in appendix VIII and, after considering the following factors, the Department concludes that the waste is capable of posing a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported or disposed of, or otherwise managed:
(ii) The concentration of the constituent in the waste.
(iii) The potential of the constituent or any toxic degradation product of the constituent to migrate from the waste into the environment under the types of improper management considered in paragraph (a)(3)(vii).
(vi) The degree to which the constituent or any degradation product of the constituent bioaccumulates in ecosystems.
(vii) The plausible types of improper management to which the waste could be subjected.
(viii) The quantities of the waste generated at individual generation sites or on a regional or national basis.
(c) The Department will use the criteria for listing specified in this section to establish the exclusion limits referred to in section 262.13.
SUBPART C
Characteristics of Hazardous Waste
261.20. General.
(a) A solid waste, as defined in section 261.2, which is not excluded from regulation as a hazardous waste under section 261.4(b), is a hazardous waste if it exhibits any of the characteristics identified in this subpart.
[Comment: 262.11 of this chapter sets forth the generators responsibility to determine whether his waste exhibits one or more of the characteristics identified in this subpart]
(c) For purposes of this subpart, the Department will consider a sample obtained using any of the applicable sampling methods specified in Appendix I to be a representative sample within the meaning of R.61-79.260.
[Comment: Since the appendix I sampling methods are not being formally adopted by the Department, a person who desires to employ an alternative sampling method is not required to demonstrate the equivalency of his method under the procedures set forth in 260.20 and 260.21.]
261.21. Characteristic of ignitability.
(a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
(3) It is an ignitable compressed gas.
(ii) A compressed gas shall be characterized as ignitable if any one of the following occurs:
(4) It is an oxidizer. An oxidizer for the purpose of this subchapter is a substance such as a chlorate, permanganate, inorganic peroxide, or a nitrate, that yields oxygen readily to stimulate the combustion of organic matter.
(i) An organic compound containing the bivalent -O-O- structure and which may be considered a derivative of hydrogen peroxide where one or more of the hydrogen atoms have been replaced by organic radicals must be classed as an organic peroxide unless:
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D001.
261.22. Characteristic of corrosivity.
(a)(1) It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5, as determined by a pH meter using Method 9040 in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in 260.11. (12/93)
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D002.
261.23. Characteristic of reactivity.
(a) A solid waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number of D003.
261.24. Toxicity characteristic.
(b) A solid waste that exhibits the characteristic of toxicity has the EPA Hazardous Waste Number specified in Table 1 which corresponds to the toxic contaminant causing it to be hazardous.
Table I.—Maximum Concentration of Contaminants for the Toxicity Characteristic
(amended 11/90)
| EPA HW No.1 | Contaminant | CAS No.2 | Regulatory Level |
| D004 | Arsenic | 7440-38-2 | 5.0 |
| D005 | Barium | 7440-39-3 | 100.0 |
| D018 | Benzene | 71-43-2 | 0.5 |
| D006 | Cadmium | 7440-43-9 | 1.0 |
| D019 | Carbon tetrachloride | 56-23-5 | 0.5 |
| D020 | Chlordane | 57-74-9 | 0.03 |
| D021 | Chlorobenzene | 108-90-7 | 100.0 |
| D022 | Chloroform | 67-66-3 | 6.0 |
| D007 | Chromium | 7440-47-3 | 5.0 |
| D023 | o-Cresol | 95-48-7 | 4200.0 |
| D024 | m-Cresol | 108-39-4 | 4200.0 |
| D025 | p-Cresol | 106-44-5 | 4200.0 |
| D026 | Cresol | ....... | 4200.0 |
| D016 | 2,4-D | 94-75-7 | 10.0 |
| D027 | 1,4-Dichlorobenzene | 106-46-7 | 7.5 |
| D028 | 1,2-Dichloroethane | 107-06-2 | 0.5 |
| D029 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene | 75-35-4 | 0.7 |
| D030 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene | 121-14-2 | 30.13 |
| D012 | Endrin | 72-20-8 | 0.02 |
| D031 | Heptachlor (and its epoxide) | 76-44-8 | 0.008 |
| D032 | Hexachlorobenzene | 118-74-1 | 30.13 |
| D033 | Hexachlorobutadiene | 87-68-3 | 0.5 |
| D034 | Hexachloroethane | 67-72-1 | 3.0 |
| D008 | Lead | 7439-92-1 | 5.0 |
| D013 | Lindane | 58-89-9 | 0.4 |
| D009 | Mercury | 7439-97-6 | 0.2 |
| D014 | Methoxychlor | 72-43-5 | 10.0 |
| D035 | Methy ethyl ketone | 78-93-3 | 200.0 |
| D036 | Nitrobenzene | 98-95-3 | 2.0 |
| D037 | Pentrachlorophenol | 87-86-5 | 100.0 |
| D038 | Pyridine | 110-86-1 | 35.0 |
| D010 | Selenium | 7782-49-2 | 1.0 |
| D011 | Silver | 7440-22-4 | 5.0 |
| D039 | Tetrachloroethylene | 127-18-4 | 0.7 |
| D015 | Toxaphene | 8001-35-2 | 0.5 |
| D040 | Trichloroethylene | 79-01-6 | 0.5 |
| D041 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 95-95-4 | 400.0 |
| D042 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | 88-06-2 | 2.0 |
| D017 | 2,4,5-TP (Silvex) | 93-72-1 | 1.0 |
| D043 | Vinyl chloride | 75-01-4 | 0.2 |
| 1Hazardous waste number. | |||
| 2Chemical abstracts service number. | |||
| 3Quantitation limit is greater than the calculated regulatory level. The quantitation limit therefore becomes the regulatory level. | |||
| 4If o-, m-, and p-Cresol concentrations cannot be differentiated, the total cresol (D026) concentration is used. The regulatory level of total cresol is 200 mg/1. |
SUBPART D
Lists of Toxic Hazardous Wastes
261.30. General.
(b) The Department will indicate the basis for listing the classes or types of wastes listed in this Subpart by employing one or more of the following Hazard Codes:
| Ignitable Waste | (I) |
| Corrosive Waste | (C) |
| Reactive Waste | (R) |
| Toxicity Characteristic Waste | (E) |
| Acute Hazardous Waste | (H) |
| Toxic Waste | (T) |
Appendix VII identifies the constituent which caused the Department to list the waste as a Toxic Characteristic (E) or Toxic Waste (T) in Sections 261.31 and 261.32.
(d) The following hazardous wastes listed in section 261.31 are subject to the exclusion limits for acutely hazardous wastes established in section 261.5: EPA Hazardous Wastes Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026 and F027.
261.31. Hazardous wastes from nonspecific sources.
(a) The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from non-specific sources unless they are excluded under R.61-79.260.20 and 260.22 and listed in appendix IX; [only changes are listed; see Appendix A-1].
| Industry | Table 261.31 Hazardous waste from nonspecific sources | Hazard |
| and EPA | (amended 11/90; 12/92) | code |
| HW # | ||
| Generic: | ||
| F001 | The following spent halogenated solvents used in degreasing: Tetrachloroethylene, trichloroethylene, methylene chloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, and chlorinated fluorocarbons; all spent solvent mixtures/blends used in degreasing containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F002, F004, and F005, and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures. | (T) |
| F002 | The following spent halogenated solvents: Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane, and 1, 1, 2-trichloroethane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above halogenated solvents or those listed in F001, F004, or F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvents mixtures. | (T) |
| F003 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Xylene, acetone, ethyl acetate, ethyl benzene, ethyl ether, methyl isobutyl ketone, n-butyl alcohol, cyclohexanone, and methanol; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, only the above spent non-halogenated solvents; and all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents, and, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of those solvents listed in F001, F002, F004, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures. | (I)* |
| F004 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents; Cresols and cresylic acid, and nitrobenzene; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, and F005; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvents mixtures. | (T) |
| F005 | The following spent non-halogenated solvents: Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, benzene, 2-ethoxyethanol, and 2-nitropropane; all spent solvent mixtures/blends containing, before use, a total of ten percent or more (by volume) of one or more of the above non-halogenated solvents or those solvents listed in F001, F002, or F004; and still bottoms from the recovery of these spent solvents and spent solvent mixtures. | (I,T) |
| F006 | Wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations except from the following processes: (1) Sulfuric acid anodizing of aluminum; (2) tin plating on carbon steel; (3) zinc plating (segregated basis) on carbon steel; (4) aluminum or zinc-aluminum plating a carbon steel; (5) cleaning/stripping associated with ten, zinc and aluminum plating a carbon steel, and (6) chemical etching and milling of aluminum. | (T) |
| F007 | Spent cyanide plating bath solutions from electroplating operations. | (R,T) |
| F008 | Plating bath residues from the bottom of plating baths from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. | (R,T) |
| F009 | Spent stripping and cleaning bath solutions from electroplating operations where cyanides are used in the process. | (R,T) |
| F010 | Quenching bath residues from oil baths from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. | (R,T) |
| F011 | Spent cyanide solutions from salt bath pot clearing from metal heat treating operations. | (R,T) |
| F012 | Quenching wastewater treatment sludges from metal heat treating operations where cyanides are used in the process. | (T) |
| F019 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the chemical conversion coating of aluminum except from zirconium phosphating in aluminum can washing when such phospating is an exclusive conversion coating process.(revised 12/93) Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process will not be subject to this listing at the point of generation if the wastes are not placed outside on the land prior to shipment to a landfill for disposal and are either: disposed in a Subtitle D municipal or industrial landfill unit that is equipped with a single clay liner and is permitted, licensed or otherwise authorized by the state; or disposed in a landfill unit subject to, or otherwise meeting, the landfill requirements in 258.40, 264.301 or 265.301. For the purposes of this listing, motor vehicle manufacturing is defined in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section and (b)(4)(ii) of this section describes the recordkeeping requirements for motor vehicle manufacturing facilities. | (T) |
| F020 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tri- or tetrachlorophenol, or of intermediates used to produce their pesticide derivatives. (This listing does not include wastes from the production of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol). | (H) |
| F021 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of pentachlorophenol or of intermediates used to produce its derivatives. | (H) |
| F022 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) of tetra, penta-, or hexachlorobenzenes under alkaline conditions. | (H) |
| F023 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the production or manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate, or component in a formulating process) or tri- and tetrachlorophenols. (This listing does not include wastes from equipment used only for the production or use of Hexachlorophene from highly purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol.) | (H) |
| F024 | Process wastes, including, but not limited to, distillation residues, heavy ends, tars, and reactor cleanout wastes from the production of certain chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and positions of chlorine substitution. [This listing does not include wastewater, wastewater treatment sludges, spent catalysts, and wastes listed in Section 261.31 or 261.32]. (revised 12/93) | (T) |
| F025 | Condensed light ends, spent filters and filter aids, and spent desiccant wastes from the production of certain chlorinated alphatic hydrocarbons, by free radical catalyzed processes. These chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons are those having carbon chain lengths ranging from one to and including five, with varying amounts and depositions of chlorine substitution. | (T) |
| F026 | Wastes (except wastewater and spent carbon from hydrogen chloride purification) from the production of materials on equipment previously used for the manufacturing use (as a reactant, chemical intermediate or component in a formulating process) of tetra-, penta-, or hexachlorobenzene under alkaline conditions. | (H) |
| F027 | Discarded unused formulations containing tri-, tetra- or pentachlorophenol or discarded unused formulations containing compounds derived from these chlorophenols. (This listing does not include formulations containing hexachlorophene synthesized from pre-purified 2,4,5-trichlorophenol as the sole component.). | (H) |
| F028 | Residues resulting from the incineration or thermal treatment of soil contaminated with EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, and F027. | (T) |
| F032 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that currently use or have previously used chlorophenolic formulations (except potentially cross-contaminated wastes that have had the F032 waste code deleted in accordance with 261.35 or potentially cross-contaminated wastes that are otherwise currently regulated as hazardous wastes (i.e., F034 or F035), and where the generator does not resume or initiate use of chlorophenolic formulations). This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol. (revised 12/93) | (T) |
| F034 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use creosote formulations. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol. (revised 12/93) | (T) |
| F035 | Wastewaters (except those that have not come into contact with process contaminants), process residuals, preservative drippage, and spent formulations from wood preserving processes generated at plants that use inorganic preservatives containing arsenic or chromium. This listing does not include K001 bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewater from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol. (revised 12/93) | (T) |
| F037 | Petroleum refinery primary oil/water/solids separation sludge-Any sludge generated from the gravitational separation of oil/water/solids during the storage or treatment of process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such sludges include, but are not limited to: those generated in oil/water/solids separators; tanks and impoundments; ditches and other conveyances; sumps; and stormwater units receiving dry weather flow. Sludge generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in 261.31(b)(2) (including sludges generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and K051 wastes are not included in this listing. This listing does include residuals generated from processing or recycling oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials excluded under 261.4(a)(12)(i), if those residuals are to be disposed of. (8/00) | (T) |
| F038 | Petroleum refinery secondary (emulsified) oil/water/solids separation sludge-Any sludge and/or float generated from the physical and/or chemical separation of oil/water/solids in process wastewaters and oily cooling wastewaters from petroleum refineries. Such wastes include, but are not limited to, all sludges and floats generated in: induced air flotation (IAF) units, tanks and impoundments, and all sludges generated in DAF units. Sludges generated in stormwater units that do not receive dry weather flow, sludges generated from non-contact once-through cooling waters segregated for treatment from other process or oily cooling waters, sludges and floats generated in aggressive biological treatment units as defined in 261.31(b)(2) (including sludges and floats generated in one or more additional units after wastewaters have been treated in aggressive biological treatment units) and F037, K048, and K051 wastes are not included in this listing (revised 12/92). | (T) |
| F039 | Leachate (liquids that have percolated through land disposed wastes) resulting from the disposal of more than one restricted waste classified as hazardous under subpart D of this part. (Leachate resulting from the disposal of one or more of the following EPA Hazardous Wastes and no other Hazardous Wastes retains its EPA Hazardous Waste Number(s): F020, F021, F022, F023, F026, F027, and/or F028.) (revised 12/92; 12/93). | (T) |
| *(I,T) should be used to specify mixtures that are ignitable and contain toxic constituents. |
(b) Listing Specific Definitions:
(1) For the purposes of the F037 and F038 listings, oil/water/solids is defined as oil and/or water and/or solids.
(ii) Generators and treatment, storage and disposal facilities have the burden of proving that their sludges are exempt from listing as F037 and F038 wastes under this definition. Generators and treatment, storage and disposal facilities must maintain, in their operating or other onsite records, documents and data sufficient to prove that:
(B) the sludges sought to be exempted from the definitions of F037 and/or F038 were actually generated in the aggressive biological treatment unit.
(3)(i) For the purposes of the F037 listing, sludges are considered to be generated at the moment of deposition in the unit, where deposition is defined as at least a temporary cessation of lateral particle movement.
(ii) For the purposes of the F038 listing,
(2)(i) For the purposes of the F037 and F038 listings, aggressive biological treatment units are defined as units which employ one of the following four treatment methods: activated sludge; trickling filter; rotating biological contactor for the continuous accelerated biological oxidation of wastewaters; or high-rate aeration. High-rate aeration is a system of surface impoundments or tanks, in which intense mechanical aeration is used to completely mix the wastes, enhance biological activity, and (A) the units employs a minimum of 6 hp per million gallons of treatment volume; and either (B) the hydraulic retention time of the unit is no longer than 5 days; or (C) the hydraulic retention time is no longer than 30 days and the unit does not generate a sludge that is a hazardous waste by the Toxicity Characteristic.
(4) For the purposes of F019 listing, the following apply to wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing of motor vehicles using a zinc phosphating process.
(ii) Generators must maintain in their on-site records, documentation and information sufficient to prove that the wastewater treatment sludges to be exempted from the F019 listing meet the conditions of the listing. These records must include: the volume of waste generated and disposed of offsite; documentation showing when the wastes volumes were generated and sent off site; the name and address of the receiving facility; and documentation confirming receipt of the waste by the receiving facility. Generators must maintain these documents on site for no less than three (3) years. The retention period for the documentation is automatically extended during the course of any enforcement action or as requested by the Department.
261.32. Hazardous wastes from specific sources.
(a) The following solid wastes are listed hazardous wastes from specific sources unless they are excluded under 260.20 and 260.22 and listed in Appendix IX. 261.32. Table is now also (a) (12/92, 5/96, 9/98, 9/01)
| Industry, SC & EPA HW # | 261.32 Hazardous Wastes from specific sources - Hazardous waste | Hazard code |
| Wood preservation: | ||
| K001 | Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood preserving processes that use creosote and/or pentachlorophenol. | (T) |
| Inorganic pigments: | ||
| K002 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome yellow and orange pigments. | (T) |
| K003 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of molybdate orange pigments. | (T) |
| K004 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of zinc yellow pigments. | (T) |
| K005 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome green pigments. | (T) |
| K006 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments (anhydrous and hydrated). | (T) |
| K007 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of iron blue pigments. | (T) |
| K008 | Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments. | (T) |
| Organic chemicals: | ||
| K009 | Distillation bottoms from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene. | (T) |
| K010 | Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene. | (T) |
| K011 | Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile. | (R, T) |
| K013 | Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile. | (R, T) |
| K014 | Bottoms from the acetonitrile purification column in the production of acrylonitrile. | (T) |
| K015 | Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride. | (T) |
| K016 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride. | (T) |
| K017 | Heavy ends (still bottoms) from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin. | (T) |
| K018 | Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production. | (T) |
| K019 | Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production. | (T) |
| K020 | Heavy ends from the distillation of vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production. | (T) |
| K021 | Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production. | (T) |
| K022 | Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol/acetone from cumene. | (T) |
| K023 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene. | (T) |
| K024 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene. | (T) |
| K025 | Distillation bottoms from the production of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene. | (T) |
| K026 | Stripping still tails from the production of methy ethyl pyridines. | (T) |
| K027 | Centrifuge and distillation residues from toluene diisocyanate production. | (R, T) |
| K028 | Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane. | (T) |
| K029 | Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane. | (T) |
| K030 | Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene. | (T) |
| K083 | Distillation bottoms from aniline production. | (T) |
| K085 | Distillation or fractionation column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes. | (T) |
| K093 | Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene. | (T) |
| K094 | Distillation bottoms from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene. | (T) |
| K095 | Distillation bottoms from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane. | (T) |
| K096 | Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane. | (T) |
| K103 | Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline. | (T) |
| K104 | Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene/aniline production. | (T) |
| K105 | Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes. | (T) |
| K107 | Column bottoms from product separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides. | (C, T) |
| K108 | Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides. | (I, T) |
| K109 | Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides. | (T) |
| K110 | Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides. | (T) |
| K111 | Product washwaters from the production of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene. | (C, T) |
| K112 | Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene. | (T) |
| K113 | Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene. | (T) |
| K114 | Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene. | (T) |
| K115 | Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene. | (T) |
| K116 | Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine. | (T) |
| K117 | Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene. | (T) |
| K118 | Spent adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene. | (T) |
| K136 | Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene. | (T) |
| K149 | Distillation bottoms from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups, (This waste does not include still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.). | (T) |
| K150 | Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid recovery processes associated with the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups. | (T) |
| K151 | Wastewater treatment sludges, excluding neutralization and biological sludges, generated during the treatment of wastewaters from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups. | (T) |
| K156 | Organic waste (including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.). | (T) |
| K157 | Wastewaters (including scrubber waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters) from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.). | (T) |
| K158 | Bag house dusts and filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. (This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.). | (T) |
| K159 | Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes | (T) |
| K161 | Purification solids (including filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids), bag house dust and floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamate acids and their salts. (This listing does not include K125 or K126.). | (R, T) |
| K174 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer (including sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other wastewater), unless the sludges meet the following conditions: (i) they are disposed of in a subtitle C or non-hazardous landfill licensed or permitted by the state or federal government; (ii) they are not otherwise placed on the land prior to final disposal; and (iii) the generator maintains documentation demonstrating that the waste was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or consigned to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a written commitment to dispose of the waste in an off-site landfill. Respondents in any action brought to enforce the requirements of subtitle C must, upon a showing by the government that the respondent managed wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride, demonstrate that they meet the terms of the exclusion set forth above. In doing so, they must provide appropriate documentation (e.g., contracts between the generator and the landfill owner/operator, invoices documenting delivery of waste to landfill, etc.) that the terms of the exclusion were met. (6/02) | (T) |
| K175 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride catalyst in an acetylene-based process. (6/02) | (T) |
| K181 | Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes and/or pigments (including nonwastewaters commingled at the point of generation with nonwastewaters from other processes) that, at the point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the constituents identified in paragraph (c) of this section that are equal to or greater than the corresponding paragraph (c) levels, as determined on a calendar year basis. These wastes will not be hazardous if the nonwastewaters are: (i) disposed in a Subtitle D landfill unit subject to the design criteria in R 61-107.258.40, (ii) disposed in a Subtitle C landfill unit subject to either 264.301 or 265.301, (iii) disposed in other Subtitle D landfill units that meet the design criteria in R. 61-107.258.40, 264.301, or 265.301, or (iv) treated in a combustion unit that is permitted under Subtitle C, or an onsite combustion unit that is permitted under the Clean Air Act. For the purposes of this listing, dyes and/or pigments production is defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Paragraph (d) of this section describes the process for demonstrating that a facility’s nonwastewaters are not K181. This listing does not apply to wastes that are otherwise identified as hazardous under 261.21-261.24 and 261.31-261.33 at the point of generation. Also, the listing does not apply to wastes generated before any annual mass loading limit is met. (2/07) | (T) |
| Inorganic chemicals: | ||
| K071 | Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not used. | (T) |
| K073 | Chlorinated hydrocarbon waste from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in chlorine production. | (T) |
| K106 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the mercury cell process in chlorine production. | (T) |
| K176 | Baghouse filters from the production of antimony oxide, including filters from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide). (6/03) | (E) |
| K177 | Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed, including slag from the production of intermediates (e.g., antimony metal or crude antimony oxide). (6/03) | (T) |
| K178 | Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing site storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process. (6/03) | (T) |
| Pesticides: | ||
| K031 | By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid. | (T) |
| K032 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chlordane. | (T) |
| K033 | Wastewater and scrub water from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. | (T) |
| K034 | Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane. | (T) |
| K035 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of creosote. | (T) |
| K036 | Still bottoms from toluene reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton. | (T) |
| K037 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of disulfoton. | (T) |
| K038 | Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production. | (T) |
| K039 | Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate. | (T) |
| K040 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of phorate. | (T) |
| K041 | Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of toxaphene. | (T) |
| K042 | Heavy ends or distillation residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T. | (T) |
| K043 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D. | (T) |
| K097 | Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane. | (T) |
| K098 | Untreated process wastewater from the production of toxaphene. | (T) |
| K099 | Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D. | (T) |
| K123 | Process wastewater (including supernates, filtrates, and washwaters) from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt. | (T) |
| K124 | Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts. | (C, T) |
| K125 | Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts. | (T) |
| K126 | Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts. | (T) |
| K131 | Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of methyl bromide. | (C, T) |
| K132 | Spent absorbent and wastewater separator solids from the production of methyl bromide. | (T) |
| Explosives: | ||
| K044 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing and processing of explosives. | (R) |
| K045 | Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives. | (R) |
| K046 | Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation and loading of lead-based initiating compounds. | (T) |
| K047 | Pink/red water from TNT operations. | (R) |
| Petroleum refining: | ||
| K048 | Dissolved air flotation (DAF) float from the petroleum refining industry. | (T) |
| K049 | Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry. | (T) |
| K050 | Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry. | (T) |
| K051 | API separator sludge from the petroleum refining industry. | (T) |
| K052 | Tank bottoms (leaded) from the petroleum refining industry. | (T) |
| K169 | Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations (8/00) | (T) |
| K170 | Clarified slurry oil tank sediment and/or in-line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations (8/00) | (T) |
| K171 | Spent Hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media) | (I, T) |
| K172 | Spent Hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors (this listing does not include inert support media.) (8/00) | (I, T) |
| Iron and Steel | ||
| K061 | Emission control dust/sludge from the primary production of steel in electric furnaces. | (T) |
| K062 | Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel industry (SIC Codes 331 and 332). | (C, T) |
| Primary aluminum: | ||
| K088 | Spent potliners from primary aluminum reduction. | (T) |
| Secondary lead: | ||
| K069 | Emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. (Note: This listing is stayed administratively for sludge generated from secondary acid scrubber systems. The stay will remain in effect until further administrative action is taken. If EPA takes further action affecting this stay, EPA will publish a notice of the action in the Federal Register). | (T) |
| K100 | Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust/sludge from secondary lead smelting. | (T) |
| Veterinary pharmaceuticals: | ||
| K084 | Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds. | (T) |
| K101 | Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds. | (T) |
| K102 | Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds. | (T) |
| Ink formulation: | ||
| K086 | Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead. | (T) |
| Coking: | ||
| K060 | Ammonia still lime sludge from coking operations. | (T) |
| K087 | Decanter tank tar sludge from coking operations(6/95). | (T) |
| K141 | Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump residues from the production of coke from coal or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. This listing does not include K087 (decanter tank tar sludges from coking operations). | (T) |
| K142 | Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. | (T) |
| K143 | Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. | (T) |
| K144 | Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. | (T) |
| K145 | Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. | (T) |
| K147 | Tar storage tank residues from coal tar refining. | (T) |
| K148 | Residues from coal tar distillation, including but not limited to, still bottoms. | (T) |
| Organotins: | ||
| K900 | Waste residues from the manufacture of organotin compounds which contain tri-(organo) substituted tin compounds, to include tributyltin and its analogs. (5/02) | (T) |
(b) Listing Specific Definitions:
(c) K181 Listing Levels. Nonwastewaters containing constituents in amounts equal to or exceeding the following levels during any calendar year are subject to the K181 listing, unless the conditions in the K181 listing are met.
| 261.32 (c) Constituent | Chemical abstracts No. | Mass levels (kg/yr) |
| Aniline | 62-53-3 | 9,300 |
| o-Anisidine | 90-04-0 | 110 |
| 4-Chloroaniline | 106-47-8 | 4,800 |
| p-Cresidine | 120-71-8 | 660 |
| 2,4-Dimethylaniline | 95-68-1 | 100 |
| 1,2-Phenylenediamine | 95-54-5 | 710 |
| 1,3-Phenylenediamine | 108-45-2 | 1,200 |
(d) Procedures for demonstrating that dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters are not K181. The procedures described in paragraphs (d)(1)-(d)(3) and (d)(5) of this section establish when nonwastewaters from the production of dyes/pigments would not be hazardous (these procedures apply to wastes that are not disposed in landfill units or treated in combustion units as specified in paragraph (a) of this section). If the nonwastewaters are disposed in landfill units or treated in combustion units as described in paragraph (a) of this section, then the nonwastewaters are not hazardous. In order to demonstrate that it is meeting the landfill disposal or combustion conditions contained in the K181 listing description, the generator must maintain documentation as described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
(2) Determination for generated quantities of 1,000 MT/yr or less for wastes that contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated is 1,000 metric tons or less, the generator can use knowledge of the wastes (e.g., knowledge of constituents in wastes based on prior analytical data and/or information about raw materials used, production processes used, and reaction and degradation products formed) to conclude that annual mass loadings for the K181 constituents are below the listing levels of paragraph (c) of this section. To make this determination, the generator must:
(ii) Track the actual quantity of nonwastewaters generated from January 1 through December 31 of each year. If, at any time within the year, the actual waste quantity exceeds 1,000 metric tons, the generator must comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section for the remainder of the year.
(iii) Keep a running total of the K181 constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year.
(iv) Keep the following records on site for the three most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations are made:
(3) Determination for generated quantities greater than 1,000 MT/yr for wastes that contain K181 constituents. If the total annual quantity of dyes and/or pigment nonwastewaters generated is greater than 1,000 metric tons, the generator must perform all of the steps described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)-(d)(3)(xi) of this section in order to make a determination that its waste is not K181.
(ii) If 1,2-phenylenediamine is present in the wastes, the generator can use either knowledge or sampling and analysis procedures to determine the level of this constituent in the wastes. For determinations based on use of knowledge, the generator must comply with the procedures for using knowledge described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and keep the records described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section. For determinations based on sampling and analysis, the generator must comply with the sampling and analysis and recordkeeping requirements described below in this section.
(iii) Develop a waste sampling and analysis plan (or modify an existing plan) to collect and analyze representative waste samples for the K181 constituents reasonably expected to be present in the wastes. At a minimum, the plan must include:
(iv) Collect and analyze samples in accordance with the waste sampling and analysis plan.
(vi) Record the waste quantity represented by the sampling and analysis results.
(vii) Calculate constituent-specific mass loadings (product of concentrations and waste quantity).
(viii) Keep a running total of the K181 constituent mass loadings over the course of the calendar year.
(x) Keep the following records on site for the three most recent calendar years in which the hazardous waste determinations are made:
(xi) Nonhazardous waste determinations must be conducted annually to verify that the wastes remain nonhazardous.
(5) Waste holding and handling. During the interim period, from the point of generation to completion of the hazardous waste determination, the generator is responsible for storing the wastes appropriately. If the wastes are determined to be hazardous and the generator has not complied with the subtitle C requirements during the interim period, the generator could be subject to an enforcement action for improper management.
261.33. Discarded commercial chemical products, off-specification species, container residues, and spill residues thereof.
The following materials or items are hazardous wastes if and when they are discarded or intended to be discarded as described in Section 261.2(a)(2)(i), when they are mixed with waste oil or used oil or other material and applied to the land for dust suppression or road treatment, when they are otherwise applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use or when they are contained in products that are applied to the land in lieu of their original intended use, or when, in lieu of their original intended use, they are produced for use as (or as a component of) a fuel, distributed for use as a fuel, or burned as a fuel.
(c) Any residue remaining in a container or in an inner liner removed from a container that has held any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in paragraphs (e) or (f) of this section, unless the container is empty as defined in Section 261.7(b) or 266.507 of this chapter.
[Comment: Unless the residue is being beneficially used or reused, or legitimately recycled or reclaimed; or being accumulated, stored, transported or treated prior to such use, re-use, recycling or reclamation, the Department considers the residue to be intended for discard, and thus, a hazardous waste. An example of a legitimate re-use of the residue would be where the residue remains in the container and the container is used to hold the same commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate it previously held. An example of the discard of the residue would be where the drum is sent to a drum reconditioner who reconditions the drum but discards the residue.]
(d) Any residue or contaminated soil, water or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill into or on any land or water of any commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, or any residue or contaminated soil, water or other debris resulting from the cleanup of a spill, into or on any land or water, of any off-specification chemical product and manufacturing chemical intermediate which, if it met specifications, would have the generic name listed in paragraph (e) or (f) of this section.
[Comment: The phrase “commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate having the generic name listed in ...” refers to a chemical substance which is manufactured or formulated for commercial or manufacturing use which consists of the commercially pure grade of the chemical, any technical grades of the chemical that are produced or marketed, and all formulations in which the chemical is the sole active ingredient. It does not refer to a material, such as a manufacturing process waste, that contains any of the substances listed in paragraph (e) or (f). Where a manufacturing process waste is deemed to be a hazardous waste because it contains a substance listed in paragraph (e) or (f), such waste will be listed in either sections 261.31 or 261.32 or will be identified as a hazardous waste by the characteristics set forth in subpart C of this part.].
(e) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates or off-specification commercial chemical products or manufacturing chemical intermediates referred to in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, are identified as acute hazardous wastes (H).
[Comment: For the convenience of the regulated community the primary hazardous properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity), and R (Reactivity). Absence of a letter indicates that the compound only is listed for acute toxicity (revised 12/92). Wastes are first listed in alphabetical order by substance and then listed again in numerical order by Hazardous Waste Number.]
These wastes and their corresponding EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers are:
| Section 261.33(e) Lists of Acute Hazardous Wastes | ||
| Hazardous waste No. | Chemical abstracts No. | Substance |
| P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
| P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)- |
| P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
| P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
| P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
| P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
| P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
| P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone |
| P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
| P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
| P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
| P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
| P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
| P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
| P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
| P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
| P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 |
| P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2 O3 |
| P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 |
| P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
| P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
| P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
| P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
| P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
| P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
| P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
| P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
| P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
| P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
| P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
| P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
| P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
| P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate |
| P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1) |
| P001 | 1 81-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
| P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
| P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
| P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
| P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
| P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
| P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
| P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 |
| P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)- thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- 7-benzofuranyl ester. |
| P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino) carbonyl]- 5-methyl-1H- pyrazol-3-yl ester |
| P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1- (1-methylethyl)-1H- pyrazol-5-yl ester. |
| P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester |
| P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran |
| P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
| P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
| P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan |
| P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
| P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
| P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
| P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
| P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
| P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate. |
| P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
| P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
| P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
| P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
| P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
| P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
| P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
| P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
| P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
| P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
| P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
| P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
| P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
| P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa- chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
| P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
| P051 | 1 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
| P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
| P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
| P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan |
| P047 | 1 534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
| P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
| P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
| P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
| P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
| P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
| P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
| P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O- [(methylamino)- carbonyl]oxime. |
| P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
| P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
| P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
| P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
| P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
| P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
| P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
| P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester |
| P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
| P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
| P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
| P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
| P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
| P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
| P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride |
| P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate. |
| P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2) salt (R,T) |
| P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
| P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
| P116 | 79-19-6 | Hydrazinecarbothioamide |
| P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
| P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
| P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
| P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
| P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
| P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate. |
| P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
| P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, |
| P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate |
| P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
| P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
| P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
| P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
| P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
| P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro- (R) |
| P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
| P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride |
| P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
| P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
| P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
| P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb |
| P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
| P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
| P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
| P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
| P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
| P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb. |
| P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate |
| P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
| P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
| P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)- |
| P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
| P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 |
| P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Nicotine & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums, and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies) |
| P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
| P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
| P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
| P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
| P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO2 |
| P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
| P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
| P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
| P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
| P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OsO4, (T-4)- |
| P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
| P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
| P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl |
| P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
| P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
| P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
| P047 | 1 534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
| P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
| P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
| P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) |
| P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate. |
| P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
| P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
| P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
| P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
| P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
| P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
| P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
| P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
| P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
| P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
| P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
| P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
| P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
| P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
| P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
| P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine |
| P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate |
| P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
| P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
| P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
| P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
| P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
| P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
| P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
| P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
| P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
| P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
| P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
| P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
| P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
| P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
| P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
| P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
| P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
| P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2- pyrrolidinyl),- (S)-, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums, and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies) |
| P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- |
| P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1) salt |
| P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
| P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
| P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
| P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
| P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
| P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
| P108 | 1 57-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
| P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
| P108 | 1 57-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
| P115 | 7446-18-6 | Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1) salt |
| P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
| P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
| P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
| P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
| P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
| P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
| P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl2 O3 |
| P114 | 12039-52-0 | Thallium(I) selenite |
| P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thallium(I) sulfate |
| P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
| P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
| P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 NH |
| P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
| P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
| P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
| P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
| P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
| P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate |
| P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
| P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
| P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
| P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V2 O5 |
| P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
| P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
| P001 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
| P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, |
| P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
| P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 |
| P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% (R,T) |
| P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram |
| P001 | 1 81-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
| P001 | 1 81-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% |
| P002 | 591-08-2 | Acetamide, -(aminothioxomethyl)- |
| P002 | 591-08-2 | 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea |
| P003 | 107-02-8 | Acrolein |
| P003 | 107-02-8 | 2-Propenal |
| P004 | 309-00-2 | Aldrin |
| P004 | 309-00-2 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a,-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)- |
| P005 | 107-18-6 | Allyl alcohol |
| P005 | 107-18-6 | 2-Propen-1-ol |
| P006 | 20859-73-8 | Aluminum phosphide (R,T) |
| P007 | 2763-96-4 | 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol |
| P007 | 2763-96-4 | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- |
| P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Aminopyridine |
| P008 | 504-24-5 | 4-Pyridinamine |
| P009 | 131-74-8 | Ammonium picrate (R) |
| P009 | 131-74-8 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt (R) |
| P010 | 7778-39-4 | Arsenic acid H3 AsO4 |
| P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic oxide As2 O5 |
| P011 | 1303-28-2 | Arsenic pentoxide |
| P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic oxide As2 O3 |
| P012 | 1327-53-3 | Arsenic trioxide |
| P013 | 542-62-1 | Barium cyanide |
| P014 | 108-98-5 | Benzenethiol |
| P014 | 108-98-5 | Thiophenol |
| P015 | 7440-41-7 | Beryllium powder |
| P016 | 542-88-1 | Dichloromethyl ether |
| P016 | 542-88-1 | Methane, oxybis[chloro- |
| P017 | 598-31-2 | Bromoacetone |
| P017 | 598-31-2 | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- |
| P018 | 357-57-3 | Brucine |
| P018 | 357-57-3 | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- |
| P020 | 88-85-7 | Dinoseb |
| P020 | 88-85-7 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- |
| P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide |
| P021 | 592-01-8 | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 |
| P022 | 75-15-0 | Carbon disulfide |
| P023 | 107-20-0 | Acetaldehyde, chloro- |
| P023 | 107-20-0 | Chloroacetaldehyde |
| P024 | 106-47-8 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- |
| P024 | 106-47-8 | p-Chloroaniline |
| P026 | 5344-82-1 | 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea |
| P026 | 5344-82-1 | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- |
| P027 | 542-76-7 | 3-Chloropropionitrile |
| P027 | 542-76-7 | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- |
| P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- |
| P028 | 100-44-7 | Benzyl chloride |
| P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide |
| P029 | 544-92-3 | Copper cyanide Cu(CN) |
| P030 | Cyanides (soluble cyanide salts), not otherwise specified | |
| P031 | 460-19-5 | Cyanogen |
| P031 | 460-19-5 | Ethanedinitrile |
| P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride |
| P033 | 506-77-4 | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl |
| P034 | 131-89-5 | 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol |
| P034 | 131-89-5 | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- |
| P036 | 696-28-6 | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- |
| P036 | 696-28-6 | Dichlorophenylarsine |
| P037 | 60-57-1 | Dieldrin |
| P037 | 60-57-1 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta, 7aalpha)- |
| P038 | 692-42-2 | Arsine, diethyl- |
| P038 | 692-42-2 | Diethylarsine |
| P039 | 298-04-4 | Disulfoton |
| P039 | 298-04-4 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester |
| P040 | 297-97-2 | O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate |
| P040 | 297-97-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester |
| P041 | 311-45-5 | Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate |
| P041 | 311-45-5 | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester |
| P042 | 51-43-4 | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- |
| P042 | 51-43-4 | Epinephrine |
| P043 | 55-91-4 | Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) |
| P043 | 55-91-4 | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester |
| P044 | 60-51-5 | Dimethoate |
| P044 | 60-51-5 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methyl amino)-2-oxoethyl] ester |
| P045 | 39196-18-4 | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
| P045 | 39196-18-4 | Thiofanox |
| P046 | 122-09-8 | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- |
| P046 | 122-09-8 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine |
| P047 | 1 534-52-1 | 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol, & salts |
| P047 | 1 534-52-1 | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro-, & salts |
| P048 | 51-28-5 | 2,4-Dinitrophenol |
| P048 | 51-28-5 | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- |
| P049 | 541-53-7 | Dithiobiuret |
| P049 | 541-53-7 | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2 N)C(S)]2 NH |
| P050 | 115-29-7 | Endosulfan |
| P050 | 115-29-7 | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a-hexahydro-, 3-oxide |
| P051 | 1 72-20-8 | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth [2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites |
| P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin |
| P051 | 72-20-8 | Endrin, & metabolites |
| P054 | 151-56-4 | Aziridine |
| P054 | 151-56-4 | Ethyleneimine |
| P056 | 7782-41-4 | Fluorine |
| P057 | 640-19-7 | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- |
| P057 | 640-19-7 | Fluoroacetamide |
| P058 | 62-74-8 | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt |
| P058 | 62-74-8 | Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt |
| P059 | 76-44-8 | Heptachlor |
| P059 | 76-44-8 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- |
| P060 | 465-73-6 | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexa-chloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,8abeta)- |
| P060 | 465-73-6 | Isodrin |
| P062 | 757-58-4 | Hexaethyl tetraphosphate |
| P062 | 757-58-4 | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester |
| P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrocyanic acid |
| P063 | 74-90-8 | Hydrogen cyanide |
| P064 | 624-83-9 | Methane, isocyanato- |
| P064 | 624-83-9 | Methyl isocyanate |
| P065 | 628-86-4 | Fulminic acid, mercury(2) salt (R,T) |
| P065 | 628-86-4 | Mercury fulminate (R,T) |
| P066 | 16752-77-5 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester |
| P066 | 16752-77-5 | Methomyl |
| P067 | 75-55-8 | Aziridine, 2-methyl- |
| P067 | 75-55-8 | 1,2-Propylenimine |
| P068 | 60-34-4 | Hydrazine, methyl- |
| P068 | 60-34-4 | Methyl hydrazine |
| P069 | 75-86-5 | 2-Methyllactonitrile |
| P069 | 75-86-5 | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
| P070 | 116-06-3 | Aldicarb |
| P070 | 116-06-3 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime |
| P071 | 298-00-0 | Methyl parathion |
| P071 | 298-00-0 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
| P072 | 86-88-4 | alpha-Naphthylthiourea |
| P072 | 86-88-4 | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- |
| P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl |
| P073 | 13463-39-3 | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)- |
| P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide |
| P074 | 557-19-7 | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 |
| P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Nicotine & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums, and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies) |
| P075 | 1 54-11-5 | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl),- (S)-, & salts (this listing does not include patches, gums, and lozenges that are FDA-approved over-the-counter nicotine replacement therapies) |
| P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitric oxide |
| P076 | 10102-43-9 | Nitrogen oxide NO |
| P077 | 100-01-6 | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- |
| P077 | 100-01-6 | p-Nitroaniline |
| P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen dioxide |
| P078 | 10102-44-0 | Nitrogen oxide NO2 |
| P081 | 55-63-0 | Nitroglycerine (R) |
| P081 | 55-63-0 | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate (R) |
| P082 | 62-75-9 | Methanamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
| P082 | 62-75-9 | N-Nitrosodimethylamine |
| P084 | 4549-40-0 | N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine |
| P084 | 4549-40-0 | Vinylamine, -methyl-N-nitroso- |
| P085 | 152-16-9 | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- |
| P085 | 152-16-9 | Octamethylpyrophosphoramide |
| P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium oxide OsO4, (T-4)- |
| P087 | 20816-12-0 | Osmium tetroxide |
| P088 | 145-73-3 | Endothall |
| P088 | 145-73-3 | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid |
| P089 | 56-38-2 | Parathion |
| P089 | 56-38-2 | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester |
| P092 | 62-38-4 | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- |
| P092 | 62-38-4 | Phenylmercury acetate |
| P093 | 103-85-5 | Phenylthiourea |
| P093 | 103-85-5 | Thiourea, phenyl- |
| P094 | 298-02-2 | Phorate |
| P094 | 298-02-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester |
| P095 | 75-44-5 | Carbonic dichloride |
| P095 | 75-44-5 | Phosgene |
| P096 | 7803-51-2 | Hydrogen phosphide |
| P096 | 7803-51-2 | Phosphine |
| P097 | 52-85-7 | Famphur |
| P097 | 52-85-7 | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester |
| P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide |
| P098 | 151-50-8 | Potassium cyanide K(CN) |
| P099 | 506-61-6 | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium |
| P099 | 506-61-6 | Potassium silver cyanide |
| P101 | 107-12-0 | Ethyl cyanide |
| P101 | 107-12-0 | Propanenitrile |
| P102 | 107-19-7 | Propargyl alcohol |
| P102 | 107-19-7 | 2-Propyn-1-ol |
| P103 | 630-10-4 | Selenourea |
| P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide |
| P104 | 506-64-9 | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) |
| P105 | 26628-22-8 | Sodium azide |
| P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide |
| P106 | 143-33-9 | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) |
| P108 | 1 157-24-9 | Strychnidin-10-one, & salts |
| P108 | 1 157-24-9 | Strychnine, & salts |
| P109 | 3689-24-5 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
| P109 | 3689-24-5 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
| P110 | 78-00-2 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
| P110 | 78-00-2 | Tetraethyl lead |
| P111 | 107-49-3 | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
| P111 | 107-49-3 | Tetraethyl pyrophosphate |
| P112 | 509-14-8 | Methane, tetranitro-(R) |
| P112 | 509-14-8 | Tetranitromethane (R) |
| P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallic oxide |
| P113 | 1314-32-5 | Thallium oxide Tl2 O3 |
| P114 | 12039-52-0 | Selenious acid, dithallium(1) salt |
| P114 | 12039-52-0 | Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate |
| P115 | 7446-18-6 | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester |
| P115 | 7446-18-6 | Plumbane, tetraethyl- |
| P116 | 79-19-6 | Tetraethyl lead |
| P116 | 79-19-6 | Thiosemicarbazide |
| P118 | 75-70-7 | Methanethiol, trichloro- |
| P118 | 75-70-7 | Trichloromethanethiol |
| P119 | 7803-55-6 | Ammonium vanadate |
| P119 | 7803-55-6 | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt |
| P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium oxide V2O5 |
| P120 | 1314-62-1 | Vanadium pentoxide |
| P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide |
| P121 | 557-21-1 | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 |
| P122 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3 P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% (R,T) |
| P123 | 8001-35-2 | Toxaphene |
| P127 | 1563-66-2 | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate |
| P127 | 1563-66-2 | Carbofuran |
| P128 | 315-8-4 | Mexacarbate |
| P128 | 315-18-4 | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) |
| P185 | 26419-73-8 | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxime |
| P185 | 26419-73-8 | Tirpate |
| P188 | 57-64-7 | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis)-1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1) |
| P188 | 57-64-7 | Physostigmine salicylate |
| P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)-thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester |
| P189 | 55285-14-8 | Carbosulfan |
| P190 | 1129-41-5 | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester |
| P190 | 1129-41-5 | Metolcarb |
| P191 | 644-64-4 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethyl-amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester |
| P191 | 644-64-4 | Dimetilan |
| P192 | 119-38-0 | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester |
| P192 | 119-38-0 | Isolan |
| P194 | 23135-22-0 | Ethanimidthioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester |
| P194 | 23135-22-0 | Oxamyl |
| P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, |
| P196 | 15339-36-3 | Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate |
| P197 | 17702-57-7 | Formparanate |
| P197 | 17702-57-7 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]- |
| P198 | 23422-53-9 | Formetanate hydrochloride |
| P198 | 23422-53-9 | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[3-[[(methylamino)-carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-monohydrochloride |
| P199 | 2032-65-7 | Methiocarb |
| P199 | 2032-65-7 | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate |
| P201 | 2631-37-0 | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
| P201 | 2631-37-0 | Promecarb |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | 3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate |
| P202 | 64-00-6 | Phenol, 3-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate |
| P203 | 1646-88-4 | Aldicarb sulfone |
| P203 | 1646-88-4 | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime |
| P204 | 57-47-6 | Physostigmine |
| P204 | 57-47-6 | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- |
| P205 | 137-30-4 | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, |
| P205 | 137-30-4 | Ziram |
| FOOTNOTE: 1CAS Number given for parent compound only. |
(f) The commercial chemical products, manufacturing chemical intermediates, or off-specification commercial chemical products referred to in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, are identified as toxic wastes (T), unless otherwise designated. (revised 5/96).
[Comment: For the convenience of the regulated community, the primary hazardous properties of these materials have been indicated by the letters T (Toxicity), R (Reactivity), I (Ignitability) and C (Corrosivity). Absence of a letter indicates that the compound is only listed for toxicity (revised 12/92; 5/96). Wastes are first listed in alphabetical order by substance and then listed again in numerical order by Hazardous Waste Number.]
These wastes and their corresponding EPA Hazardous Waste Numbers are:
| 261.33(f) Lists of Subpart D Toxic Hazardous Wastes | ||
| HW # | CAS# | Substance (11/90; 12/92; 12/93; 5/96, 9/98) |
| U394 | 30558-43-1 | A2213 (5/96) |
| U001 | 75-07-0 | Acetaldehyde (I) |
| U034 | 75-87-6 | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- |
| U187 | 62-44-2 | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- |
| U005 | 53-96-3 | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- |
| U240 | 194-75-7 | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-, salts & esters |
| U112 | 141-78-6 | Acetic acid ethyl ester (I) |
| U144 | 301-04-2 | Acetic acid, lead(2+) salt |
| U214 | 563-68-8 | Acetic acid, thallium(1+) salt |
| see F027 | 93-76-5 | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
| U002 | 67-64-1 | Acetone (I) |
| U003 | 75-05-8 | Acetonitrile (I,T) |
| U004 | 98-86-2 | Acetophenone |
| U005 | 53-96-3 | 2-Acetylaminofluorene |
| U006 | 75-36-5 | Acetyl chloride (C,R,T) |
| U007 | 79-06-1 | Acrylamide |
| U008 | 79-10-7 | Acrylic acid (I) |
| U009 | 107-13-1 | Acrylonitrile |
| U011 | 61-82-5 | Amitrole |
| U012 | 62-53-3 | Aniline (I,T) |
| U136 | 75-60-5 | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- |
| U014 | 492-80-8 | Auramine |
| U015 | 115-02-6 | Azaserine |
| U010 | 50-07-7 | Azirino[2’,3’:3,4]pyrrolo(1,2-a)indole-4,7- dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b- hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5-methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha, 8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]- |
| U280 | 101-27-9 | Barban. (5/96) |
| U278 | 22781-23-3 | Bendiocarb. (5/96) |
| U364 | 22961-82-6 | Bendiocarb phenol. (5/96) |
| U271 | 17804-35-2 | Benomyl. (5/96) |
| U157 | 56-49-5 | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- |
| U016 | 225-51-4 | Benz[c]acridine |
| U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzal chloride |
| U192 | 23950-58-5 | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2- propynyl)- |
| U018 | 56-55-3 | Benz[a]anthracene |
| U094 | 57-97-6 | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- |
| U012 | 62-53-3 | Benzenamine (I,T) |
| U014 | 492-80-8 | Benzenamine, 4,4’-carbonimidoylbis[N,N- dimethyl- |
| U049 | 3165-93-3 | Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
| U093 | 60-11-7 | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- |
| U328 | 95-53-4 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- |
| U353 | 106-49-0 | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- |
| U158 | 101-14-4 | Benzenamine, 4,4’-methylenebis[2-chloro- |
| U222 | 636-21-5 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride |
| U181 | 99-55-8 | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- |
| U019 | 71-43-2 | Benzene (I,T) |
| U038 | 510-15-6 | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4- chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester |
| U030 | 101-55-3 | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- |
| U035 | 305-03-3 | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]- |
| U037 | 108-90-7 | Benzene, chloro- |
| U221 | 25376-45-8 | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- |
| U028 | 117-81-7 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester |
| U069 | 84-74-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester |
| U088 | 84-66-2 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester |
| U102 | 131-11-3 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester |
| U107 | 117-84-0 | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester |
| U070 | 95-50-1 | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- |
| U071 | 541-73-1 | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- |
| U072 | 106-46-7 | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- |
| U060 | 72-54-8 | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- |
| U017 | 98-87-3 | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- |
| U223 | 26471-62-5 | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- (R,T) |
| U239 | 1330-20-7 | Benzene, dimethyl- (I) |
| U201 | 108-46-3 | 1,3-Benzenediol |
| U127 | 118-74-1 | Benzene, hexachloro- |
| U056 | 110-82-7 | Benzene, hexahydro- (I) |
| U220 | 108-88-3 | Benzene, methyl- |
| U105 | 121-14-2 | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- |
| U106 | 606-20-2 | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- |
| U055 | 98-82-8 | Benzene, (1-methylethyl)- (I) |
| U169 | 98-95-3 | Benzene, nitro- |
| U183 | 608-93-5 | Benzene, pentachloro- |
| U185 | 82-68-8 | Benzene, pentachloronitro- |
| U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonic acid chloride (C,R) |
| U020 | 98-09-9 | Benzenesulfonyl chloride (C,R) |
| U207 | 95-94-3 | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- |
| U061 | 50-29-3 | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- chloro- |
| U247 | 72-43-5 | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4- methoxy- |
| U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- |
| U234 | 99-35-4 | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- |
| U021 | 92-87-5 | Benzidine |
| U202 | 181-07-2 | 1,2-Benzisothiazol-3(2H)-one, 1,1-dioxide, & salts |
| U278 | 22781-23-3 | 1,3Benzodioxol-4ol, 2,2dimethyl, methyl carbamate. (5/96) |
| U364 | 22961-82-6 | 1,3Benzodioxol4ol, 2,2dimethyl, |
| U203 | 94-59-7 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- |
| U141 | 120-58-1 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- |
| U367 | 1563-38-8 | 7Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro2,2-dimethyl (5/96) |
| U090 | 94-58-6 | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- |
| U064 | 189-55-9 | Benzo[rst]pentaphene |
| U248 | 181-81-2 | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenyl- butyl)-, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
| U022 | 50-32-8 | Benzo[a]pyrene |
| U197 | 106-51-4 | p-Benzoquinone |
| U023 | 98-07-7 | Benzotrichloride (C,R,T) |
| U085 | 1464-53-5 | 2,2’-Bioxirane |
| U021 | 92-87-5 | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine |
| U073 | 91-94-1 | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dichloro- |
| U091 | 119-90-4 | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dimethoxy- |
| U095 | 119-93-7 | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dimethyl- |
| U225 | 75-25-2 | Bromoform |
| U030 | 101-55-3 | 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether |
| U128 | 87-68-3 | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- |
| U172 | 924-16-3 | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- |
| U031 | 71-36-3 | 1-Butanol (I) |
| U159 | 78-93-3 | 2-Butanone (I,T) |
| U160 | 1338-23-4 | 2-Butanone, peroxide (R,T) |
| U053 | 4170-30-3 | 2-Butenal |
| U074 | 764-41-0 | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- (I,T) |
| U143 | 303-34-4 | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1- oxobutoxy]methyl]- 2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H- pyrrolizin-1-yl ester,... [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- |
| U031 | 71-36-3 | n-Butyl alcohol (I) |
| U136 | 75-60-5 | Cacodylic acid |
| U032 | 13765-19-0 | Calcium chromate |
| U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl |
| U271 | 17804-35-2 | Carbamic acid, [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]-1H- benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester. (5/96) |
| U280 | 101-27-9 | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro-2- butynyl ester. (5/96) |
| U373 | 122-42-9 | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester. |
| U409 | 23564-05-8 | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester. (5/96) |
| U238 | 51-79-6 | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester |
| U178 | 615-53-2 | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester |
| U097 | 79-44-7 | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- |
| U114 | 1111-54-6 | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts & esters |
| U062 | 2303-16-4 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester |
| U389 | 2303-17-5 | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester. (5/96) |
| U387 | 52888-80-9 | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester. (5/96) |
| U279 | 63-25-2 | Carbaryl. (5/96) |
| U372 | 10605-21-7 | Carbendazim. (5/96) |
| U367 | 1563-38-8 | Carbofuran phenol. (5/96) |
| U215 | 6533-73-9 | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1+) salt |
| U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbonic difluoride |
| U156 | 79-22-1 | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester (I, T) |
| U033 | 353-50-4 | Carbon oxyfluoride (R, T) |
| U211 | 56-23-5 | Carbon tetrachloride |
| U034 | 75-87-6 | Chloral |
| U035 | 305-03-3 | Chlorambucil |
| U036 | 57-74-9 | Chlordane, alpha & gamma isomers |
| U026 | 494-03-1 | Chlornaphazin |
| U037 | 108-90-7 | Chlorobenzene |
| U038 | 510-15-6 | Chlorobenzilate |
| U039 | 59-50-7 | p-Chloro-m-cresol |
| U042 | 110-75-8 | 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether |
| U044 | 67-66-3 | Chloroform |
| U046 | 107-30-2 | Chloromethyl methyl ether |
| U047 | 91-58-7 | beta-Chloronaphthalene |
| U048 | 95-57-8 | o-Chlorophenol |
| U049 | 3165-93-3 | 4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride |
| U032 | 13765-19-0 | Chromic acid H2CrO4, calcium salt |
| U050 | 218-01-9 | Chrysene |
| U051 | ---- | Creosote |
| U052 | 1319-77-3 | Cresol (Cresylic acid) |
| U053 | 4170-30-3 | Crotonaldehyde |
| U055 | 98-82-8 | Cumene (I) |
| U246 | 506-68-3 | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br |
| U197 | 106-51-4 | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione |
| U056 | 110-82-7 | Cyclohexane (I) |
| U129 | 58-89-9 | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- |
| U057 | 108-94-1 | Cyclohexanone (I) |
| U130 | 77-47-4 | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- |
| U058 | 50-18-0 | Cyclophosphamide |
| U240 | 194-75-7 | 2,4-D, salts & esters |
| U059 | 20830-81-3 | Daunomycin |
| U060 | 72-54-8 | DDD |
| U061 | 50-29-3 | DDT |
| U062 | 2303-16-4 | Diallate |
| U063 | 53-70-3 | Dibenz[a,h]anthracene |
| U064 | 189-55-9 | Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene |
| U066 | 96-12-8 | 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane |
| U069 | 84-74-2 | Dibutyl phthalate |
| U070 | 95-50-1 | o-Dichlorobenzene |
| U071 | 541-73-1 | m-Dichlorobenzene |
| U072 | 106-46-7 | p-Dichlorobenzene |
| U073 | 91-94-1 | 3,3’-Dichlorobenzidine |
| U074 | 764-41-0 | 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene (I, T) |
| U075 | 75-71-8 | Dichlorodifluoromethane |
| U078 | 75-35-4 | 1,1-Dichloroethylene |
| U079 | 156-60-5 | 1,2-Dichloroethylene |
| U025 | 111-44-4 | Dichloroethyl ether |
| U027 | 108-60-1 | Dichloroisopropyl ether |
| U024 | 111-91-1 | Dichloromethoxy ethane |
| U081 | 120-83-2 | 2,4-Dichlorophenol |
| U082 | 87-65-0 | 2,6-Dichlorophenol |
| U084 | 542-75-6 | 1,3-Dichloropropene |
| U085 | 1464-53-5 | 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane (I, T) |
| U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Diethyleneoxide |
| U028 | 117-81-7 | Diethylhexyl phthalate |
| U395 | 5952-26-1 | Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate. (5/96) |
| U086 | 1615-80-1 | N,N’-Diethylhydrazine |
| U087 | 3288-58-2 | O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate |
| U088 | 84-66-2 | Diethyl phthalate |
| U089 | 56-53-1 | Diethylstilbesterol |
| U090 | 94-58-6 | Dihydrosafrole |
| U091 | 119-90-4 | 3,3’-Dimethoxybenzidine |
| U092 | 124-40-3 | Dimethylamine (I) |
| U093 | 60-11-7 | p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene |
| U094 | 57-97-6 | 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene |
| U095 | 119-93-7 | 3,3’-Dimethylbenzidine |
| U096 | 80-15-9 | alpha,alpha-Dimethylbenzylhydroperoxide (R) |
| U097 | 79-44-7 | Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride |
| U098 | 57-14-7 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine |
| U099 | 540-73-8 | 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine |
| U101 | 105-67-9 | 2,4-Dimethylphenol |
| U102 | 131-11-3 | Dimethyl phthalate |
| U103 | 77-78-1 | Dimethyl sulfate |
| U105 | 121-14-2 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene |
| U106 | 606-20-2 | 2,6-Dinitrotoluene |
| U107 | 117-84-0 | Di-n-octyl phthalate |
| U108 | 123-91-1 | 1,4-Dioxane |
| U109 | 122-66-7 | 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine |
| U110 | 142-84-7 | Dipropylamine (I) |
| U111 | 621-64-7 | Di-n-propylnitrosamine |
| U041 | 106-89-8 | Epichlorohydrin |
| U001 | 75-07-0 | Ethanal (I) |
| U174 | 55-18-5 | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
| U404 | 121-44-8 | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- (5/96) |
| U155 | 91-80-5 | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N’-2- pyridinyl-N’-(2-thienylmethyl)- |
| U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- |
| U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- |
| U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- |
| U131 | 67-72-1 | Ethane, hexachloro- |
| U024 | 111-91-1 | Ethane, 1,1’-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- |
| U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethane, 1,1’-oxybis-(I) |
| U025 | 111-44-4 | Ethane, 1,1’-oxybis[2-chloro- |
| U184 | 76-01-7 | Ethane, pentachloro- |
| U208 | 630-20-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- |
| U209 | 79-34-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- |
| U218 | 62-55-5 | Ethanethioamide |
| U226 | 71-55-6 | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- |
| U227 | 79-00-5 | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- |
| U410 | 59669-26-0 | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N’-[thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester (5/96) |
| U394 | 30558-43-1 | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N- hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester. |
| U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- |
| U173 | 1116-54-7 | Ethanol, 2,2’-(nitrosoimino)bis- |
| U395 | 5952-26-1 | Ethanol, 2,2’-oxybis-, dicarbamate. (5/96) |
| U004 | 98-86-2 | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- |
| U043 | 75-01-4 | Ethene, chloro- |
| U042 | 110-75-8 | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- |
| U078 | 75-35-4 | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- |
| U079 | 156-60-5 | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- |
| U210 | 127-18-4 | Ethene, tetrachloro- |
| U228 | 79-01-6 | Ethene, trichloro- |
| U112 | 141-78-6 | Ethyl acetate (I) |
| U113 | 140-88-5 | Ethyl acrylate (I) |
| U238 | 51-79-6 | Ethyl carbamate (urethane) |
| U117 | 60-29-7 | Ethyl ether (I) |
| U114 | 1111-54-6 | Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts & esters |
| U067 | 106-93-4 | Ethylene dibromide |
| U077 | 107-06-2 | Ethylene dichloride |
| U359 | 110-80-5 | Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether |
| U115 | 75-21-8 | Ethylene oxide (I, T) |
| U116 | 96-45-7 | Ethylenethiourea |
| U076 | 75-34-3 | Ethylidene dichloride |
| U118 | 97-63-2 | Ethyl methacrylate |
| U119 | 62-50-0 | Ethyl methanesulfonate |
| U120 | 206-44-0 | Fluoranthene |
| U122 | 50-00-0 | Formaldehyde |
| U123 | 64-18-6 | Formic acid (C, T) |
| U124 | 110-00-9 | Furan (I) |
| U125 | 98-01-1 | 2-Furancarboxaldehyde (I) |
| U147 | 108-31-6 | 2,5-Furandione |
| U213 | 109-99-9 | Furan, tetrahydro-(I) |
| U125 | 98-01-1 | Furfural (I) |
| U124 | 110-00-9 | Furfuran (I) |
| U206 | 18883-66-4 | Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3- nitrosoureido)-, D- |
| U206 | 18883-66-4 | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)- carbonyl]amino]- |
| U126 | 765-34-4 | Glycidylaldehyde |
| U163 | 70-25-7 | Guanidine, N-methyl-N’-nitro-N-nitroso- |
| U127 | 118-74-1 | Hexachlorobenzene |
| U128 | 87-68-3 | Hexachlorobutadiene |
| U130 | 77-47-4 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene |
| U131 | 67-72-1 | Hexachloroethane |
| U132 | 70-30-4 | Hexachlorophene |
| U243 | 1888-71-7 | Hexachloropropene |
| U133 | 302-01-2 | Hydrazine (R, T) |
| U086 | 1615-80-1 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- |
| U098 | 57-14-7 | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- |
| U099 | 540-73-8 | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- |
| U109 | 122-66-7 | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- |
| U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrofluoric acid (C, T) |
| U134 | 7664-39-3 | Hydrogen fluoride (C, T) |
| U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide |
| U135 | 7783-06-4 | Hydrogen sulfide H2S |
| U096 | 80-15-9 | Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl- (R) |
| U116 | 96-45-7 | 2-Imidazolidinethione |
| U137 | 193-39-5 | Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene |
| U190 | 85-44-9 | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione |
| U140 | 78-83-1 | Isobutyl alcohol (I, T) |
| U141 | 120-58-1 | Isosafrole |
| U142 | 143-50-0 | Kepone |
| U143 | 303-34-4 | Lasiocarpine |
| U144 | 301-04-2 | Lead acetate |
| U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- |
| U145 | 7446-27-7 | Lead phosphate |
| U146 | 1335-32-6 | Lead subacetate |
| U129 | 58-89-9 | Lindane |
| U163 | 70-25-7 | MNNG |
| U147 | 108-31-6 | Maleic anhydride |
| U148 | 123-33-1 | Maleic hydrazide |
| U149 | 109-77-3 | Malononitrile |
| U150 | 148-82-3 | Melphalan |
| U151 | 7439-97-6 | Mercury |
| U152 | 126-98-7 | Methacrylonitrile (I, T) |
| U092 | 124-40-3 | Methanamine, N-methyl- (I) |
| U029 | 74-83-9 | Methane, bromo- |
| U045 | 74-87-3 | Methane, chloro- (I, T) |
| U046 | 107-30-2 | Methane, chloromethoxy- |
| U068 | 74-95-3 | Methane, dibromo- |
| U080 | 75-09-2 | Methane, dichloro- |
| U075 | 75-71-8 | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- |
| U138 | 74-88-4 | Methane, iodo- |
| U119 | 62-50-0 | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester |
| U211 | 56-23-5 | Methane, tetrachloro- |
| U153 | 74-93-1 | Methanethiol (I, T) |
| U225 | 75-25-2 | Methane, tribromo- |
| U044 | 67-66-3 | Methane, trichloro- |
| U121 | 75-69-4 | Methane, trichlorofluoro- |
| U036 | 57-74-9 | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8- octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- |
| U154 | 67-56-1 | Methanol (I) |
| U155 | 91-80-5 | Methapyrilene |
| U142 | 143-50-0 | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2- one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6- decachlorooctahydro- |
| U247 | 72-43-5 | Methoxychlor |
| U154 | 67-56-1 | Methyl alcohol (I) |
| U029 | 74-83-9 | Methyl bromide |
| U186 | 504-60-9 | 1-Methylbutadiene (I) |
| U045 | 74-87-3 | Methyl chloride (I, T) |
| U156 | 79-22-1 | Methyl chlorocarbonate (I, T) |
| U226 | 71-55-6 | Methyl chloroform |
| U157 | 56-49-5 | 3-Methylcholanthrene |
| U158 | 101-14-4 | 4,4’-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline) |
| U068 | 74-95-3 | Methylene bromide |
| U080 | 75-09-2 | Methylene chloride |
| U159 | 78-93-3 | Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) (I, T) |
| U160 | 1338-23-4 | Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide (R, T) |
| U138 | 74-88-4 | Methyl iodide |
| U161 | 108-10-1 | Methyl isobutyl ketone (I) |
| U162 | 80-62-6 | Methyl methacrylate (I, T) |
| U161 | 108-10-1 | 4-Methyl-2-pentanone (I) |
| U164 | 56-04-2 | Methylthiouracil |
| U010 | 50-07-7 | Mitomycin C |
| U059 | 20830-81-3 | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3- amino-2,3,6-trideoxy)-alpha-L-lyxo- hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- |
| U167 | 134-32-7 | 1-Naphthalenamine |
| U168 | 91-59-8 | 2-Naphthalenamine |
| U026 | 494-03-1 | Naphthalenamine, N,N’-bis(2-chloroethyl)- |
| U165 | 91-20-3 | Naphthalene |
| U047 | 91-58-7 | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- |
| U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthalenedione |
| U236 | 72-57-1 | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3’-[(3,3’- dimethyl[1,1’-biphenyl]-4,4’- diyl)bis(azo)bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy]-, tetrasodium salt |
| U279 | 63-25-2 | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate. (5/96) |
| U166 | 130-15-4 | 1,4-Naphthoquinone |
| U167 | 134-32-7 | alpha-Naphthylamine |
| U168 | 91-59-8 | beta-Naphthylamine |
| U217 | 10102-45-1 | Nitric acid, thallium(1+) salt |
| U169 | 98-95-3 | Nitrobenzene (I, T) |
| U170 | 100-02-7 | p-Nitrophenol |
| U171 | 79-46-9 | 2-Nitropropane (I, T) |
| U172 | 924-16-3 | N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine |
| U173 | 1116-54-7 | N-Nitrosodiethanolamine |
| U174 | 55-18-5 | N-Nitrosodiethylamine |
| U176 | 759-73-9 | N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea |
| U177 | 684-93-5 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurea |
| U178 | 615-53-2 | N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane |
| U179 | 100-75-4 | N-Nitrosopiperidine |
| U180 | 930-55-2 | N-Nitrosopyrrolidine |
| U181 | 99-55-8 | 5-Nitro-o-toluidine |
| U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide |
| U058 | 50-18-0 | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N- bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide |
| U115 | 75-21-8 | Oxirane (I, T) |
| U126 | 765-34-4 | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde |
| U041 | 106-89-8 | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- |
| U182 | 123-63-7 | Paraldehyde |
| U183 | 608-93-5 | Pentachlorobenzene |
| U184 | 76-01-7 | Pentachloroethane |
| U185 | 82-68-8 | Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) |
| See F027 | 87-86-5 | Pentachlorophenol |
| U161 | 108-10-1 | Pentanol, 4-methyl- |
| U186 | 504-60-9 | 1,3-Pentadiene (I) |
| U187 | 62-44-2 | Phenacetin |
| U188 | 108-95-2 | Phenol |
| U048 | 95-57-8 | Phenol, 2-chloro- |
| U039 | 59-50-7 | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- |
| U081 | 120-83-2 | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- |
| U082 | 87-65-0 | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- |
| U089 | 56-53-1 | Phenol, 4,4’-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- |
| U101 | 105-67-9 | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- |
| U052 | 1319-77-3 | Phenol, methyl- |
| U132 | 70-30-4 | Phenol, 2,2’-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- |
| U411 | 114-26-1 | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate. (5/96) |
| U170 | 100-02-7 | Phenol, 4-nitro- |
| See F027 | 87-86-5 | Phenol, pentachloro- |
| See F027 | 58-90-2 | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- |
| See F027 | 95-95-4 | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- |
| See F027 | 88-06-2 | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- |
| U150 | 148-82-3 | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- |
| U145 | 7446-27-7 | Phosphoric acid, lead(2+) salt (2:3) |
| U087 | 3288-58-2 | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester |
| U189 | 1314-80-3 | Phosphorus sulfide (R) |
| U190 | 85-44-9 | Phthalic anhydride |
| U191 | 109-06-8 | 2-Picoline |
| U179 | 100-75-4 | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- |
| U192 | 23950-58-5 | Pronamide |
| U194 | 107-10-8 | 1-Propanamine (I, T) |
| U111 | 621-64-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- |
| U110 | 142-84-7 | 1-Propanamine, N-propyl- (I) |
| U066 | 96-12-8 | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- |
| U083 | 78-87-5 | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- |
| U149 | 109-77-3 | Propanedinitrile |
| U171 | 79-46-9 | Propane, 2-nitro- (I, T) |
| U027 | 108-60-1 | Propane, 2,2’-oxybis[2-chloro- |
| U193 | 1120-71-4 | 1,3-Propane sultone |
| See F027 | 93-72-1 | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- |
| U235 | 126-72-7 | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) |
| U140 | 78-83-1 | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- (I, T) |
| U002 | 67-64-1 | 2-Propanone (I) |
| U007 | 79-06-1 | 2-Propenamide |
| U084 | 542-75-6 | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- |
| U243 | 1888-71-7 | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- |
| U009 | 107-13-1 | 2-Propenenitrile |
| U152 | 126-98-7 | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- (I, T) |
| U008 | 79-10-7 | 2-Propenoic acid (I) |
| U113 | 140-88-5 | 2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester (I) |
| U118 | 97-63-2 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester |
| U162 | 80-62-6 | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester (I, T) |
| U373 | 112-42-9 | Propham. (5/96) |
| U411 | 114-26-1 | Propoxur. (5/96) |
| U194 | 107-10-8 | n-Propylamine (I, T) |
| U083 | 78-87-5 | Propylene dichloride |
| U387 | 52888-80-9 | Prosulfocarb. (5/96) |
| U148 | 123-33-1 | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- |
| U196 | 110-86-1 | Pyridine |
| U191 | 109-06-8 | Pyridine, 2-methyl- |
| U237 | 66-75-1 | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]- |
| U164 | 56-04-2 | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2- thioxo- |
| U180 | 930-55-2 | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- |
| U200 | 50-55-5 | Reserpine |
| U201 | 108-46-3 | Resorcinol |
| U203 | 94-59-7 | Safrole |
| U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenious acid |
| U204 | 7783-00-8 | Selenium dioxide |
| U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide |
| U205 | 7488-56-4 | Selenium sulfide SeS2 (R, T) |
| U015 | 115-02-6 | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) |
| See F027 | 93-72-1 | Silvex (2,4,5-TP) |
| U206 | 18883-66-4 | Streptozotocin |
| U103 | 77-78-1 | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester |
| U189 | 1314-80-3 | Sulfur phosphide (R) |
| See F027 | 93-76-5 | 2,4,5-T |
| U207 | 95-94-3 | 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene |
| U208 | 630-20-6 | 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane |
| U209 | 79-34-5 | 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane |
| U210 | 127-18-4 | Tetrachloroethylene |
| See F027 | 58-90-2 | 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol |
| U213 | 109-99-9 | Tetrahydrofuran (I) |
| U214 | 563-68-8 | Thallium(I) acetate |
| U215 | 6533-73-9 | Thallium(I) carbonate |
| U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium(I) chloride |
| U216 | 7791-12-0 | Thallium chloride TlCl |
| U217 | 10102-45-1 | Thallium(I) nitrate |
| U218 | 62-55-5 | Thioacetamide |
| U410 | 59669-26-0 | Thiodicarb. (5/96) |
| U153 | 74-93-1 | Thiomethanol (I, T) |
| U244 | 137-26-8 | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H2N)C(S)]2S2,tetramethyl- |
| U409 | 23564-05-8 | Thiophanate-methyl. (5/96) |
| U219 | 62-56-6 | Thiourea |
| U244 | 137-26-8 | Thiram |
| U220 | 108-88-3 | Toluene |
| U221 | 25376-45-8 | Toluenediamine |
| U223 | 26471-62-5 | Toluene diisocyanate (R, T) |
| U328 | 95-53-4 | o-Toluidine |
| U353 | 106-49-0 | p-Toluidine |
| U222 | 636-21-5 | o-Toluidine hydrochloride |
| U389 | 2303-17-5 | Triallate. (5/96) |
| U011 | 61-82-5 | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine |
| U227 | 79-00-5 | 1,1,2-Trichloroethane |
| U228 | 79-01-6 | Trichloroethylene |
| U121 | 75-69-4 | Trichloromonofluoromethane |
| See F027 | 95-95-4 | 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol |
| See F027 | 88-06-2 | 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol |
| U404 | 121-44-8 | Triethylamine.(5/96) |
| U234 | 99-35-4 | 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene (R, T) |
| U182 | 123-63-7 | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- |
| U235 | 126-72-7 | Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate |
| U236 | 72-57-1 | Trypan blue |
| U237 | 66-75-1 | Uracil mustard |
| U176 | 759-73-9 | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- |
| U177 | 684-93-5 | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- |
| U043 | 75-01-4 | Vinyl chloride |
| U248 | 181-81-2 | Warfarin, & salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less |
| U239 | 1330-20-7 | Xylene (I) |
| U200 | 50-55-5 | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17- dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5- trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester, (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- |
| U249 | 1314-84-7 | Zinc phosphide Zn3P2, when present at concentrations of 10% or less |
| 1CAS Number given for parent compound only. |
261.35. Deletion of certain hazardous waste codes following equipment cleaning and replacement.
(b) Generators must either clean or replace all process equipment that may have come into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or constituents thereof, including, but not limited to, treatment cylinders, sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads, fork lifts, and trams, in a manner that minimizes or eliminates the escape of hazardous waste or constituents, leachate, contaminated drippage, or hazardous waste decomposition products to the ground water, surface water, or atmosphere.
(1) Generators shall do one of the following:
(ii) Prepare and follow an equipment replacement plan and replace equipment in accordance with this section; or
(iii) Document cleaning and replacement in accordance with this section, carried out after termination of use of chlorophenolic preservations.
(2) Cleaning Requirements.
(i) Prepare and sign a written equipment cleaning plan that describes:
(ii) Equipment must be cleaned as follows:
(B) Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until dioxins and dibenzofurans are not detected in the final solvent rinse.
(iii) Analytical requirements.
(3) Replacement requirements.
(i) Prepare and sign a written equipment replacement plan that describes:
(4) Documentation requirements.
(c) The generator must maintain the following records documenting the cleaning and replacement as part of the facility’s operating record:
(12) The following statement signed by the generator or his authorized representative:
I certify under penalty of law that all process equipment required to be cleaned or replaced under 261.35 was cleaned or replaced as represented in the equipment cleaning and replacement plan and accompanying documentation. I am aware that there are significant penalties for providing false information, including the possibility of fine or imprisonment.
SUBPART E
Exclusions/Exemptions
261.38. [Reserved].
261.39. Conditional Exclusion for Used, Broken Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) and Processed CRT Glass Undergoing Recycling.
Used, broken CRTs are not solid wastes if they meet the following conditions:
(a) Prior to processing: These materials are not solid wastes if they are destined for recycling and if they meet the following requirements:
(1) Storage. The broken CRTs must be either:
(5) Exports. In addition to the applicable conditions specified in paragraphs (a)(1)-(4) of this section, exporters of used, broken CRTs must comply with the following requirements:
(i) Notify EPA of an intended export before the CRTs are scheduled to leave the United States. A complete notification should be submitted sixty (60) days before the initial shipment is intended to be shipped off-site. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period. The notification must be in writing, signed by the exporter, and include the following information:
(ii) Notifications must be submitted electronically using EPA’s Waste Import Export Tracking System (WIETS), or its successor system.
(iii) Upon request by EPA, the exporter shall furnish to EPA any additional information which a receiving country requests in order to respond to a notification.
(v) The export of CRTs is prohibited unless all of the following occur:
(B) On or after the AES filing compliance date, the exporter or a U.S. authorized agent must:
(2) Include the following items in the EEI, along with the other information required under 15 CFR 30.6:
(ii) Commodity classification code per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(12);
(iii) EPA consent number;
(vi) Quantity of waste in shipment and units for reported quantity, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are in units of weight or volume per 15 CFR 30.6(a)(15); or
(vii) EPA net quantity reported in units of kilograms, if required reporting units established by value for the reported commodity classification number are not in units of weight or volume.
(vi) When the conditions specified on the original notification change, the exporter must provide EPA with a written renotification of the change using the allowable methods listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section, except for changes to the telephone number in paragraph (a)(5)(i)(A) of this section and decreases in the quantity indicated pursuant to paragraph (a)(5)(i)(C) of this section. The shipment cannot take place until consent of the receiving country to the changes has been obtained (except for changes to information about points of entry and departure and transit countries pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5)(i)(D) and (H) of this section) and the exporter of CRTs receives from EPA a copy of the Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs reflecting the receiving country’s consent to the changes.
(vii) A copy of the Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs must accompany the shipment of CRTs. The shipment must conform to the terms of the Acknowledgment.
(viii) If a shipment of CRTs cannot be delivered for any reason to the recycler or the alternate recycler, the exporter of CRTs must renotify EPA of a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a new recycler in accordance with paragraph (a)(5)(vi) of this section and obtain another Acknowledgment of Consent to Export CRTs.
(x) CRT exporters must file with EPA no later than March 1 of each year, an annual report summarizing the quantities (in kilograms), frequency of shipment, and ultimate destination(s) (for example, the facility or facilities where the recycling occurs) of all used CRTs exported during the previous calendar year. Such reports must also include the following:
(C) A certification signed by the CRT exporter that states:
“I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining this information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(b) Requirements for used CRT processing: Used, broken CRTs undergoing CRT processing as defined in Sec. 260.10 of this chapter are not solid wastes if they meet the following requirements:
(2) Processing.
(d) Use constituting disposal: Glass from used CRTs that is used in a manner constituting disposal must comply with the requirements of R.61-79.266 subpart C instead of the requirements of this section.
261.40. Conditional Exclusion for Used, Intact Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) Exported for Recycling.
Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not solid wastes if they meet the notice and consent conditions of Sec. 261.39(a)(5), and if they are not speculatively accumulated as defined in Sec. 261.1(c)(8).
261.41. Notification and Recordkeeping for Used, Intact Cathode Ray Tubes (CRTs) Exported for Reuse.
(a) CRT exporters who export used, intact CRTs for reuse must send a notification to the EPA. This notification may cover export activities extending over a twelve (12) month or lesser period.
(1) The notification must be in writing, signed by the exporter, and include the following information:
(ii) The estimated frequency or rate at which the used, intact CRTs are to be exported for reuse and the period of time over which they are to be exported;
(iii) The estimated total quantity of used, intact CRTs specified in kilograms;
(vi) The name and address of the ultimate destination facility or facilities where the used, intact CRTs will be reused, refurbished, distributed, or sold for reuse and the estimated quantity of used, intact CRTs to be sent to each facility, as well as the name of any alternate destination facility or facilities;
(vii) A description of the manner in which the used, intact CRTs will be reused (including reuse after refurbishment) in the foreign country that will be receiving the used, intact CRTs; and
(viii) A certification signed by the CRT exporter that states:
“I certify under penalty of law that the CRTs described in this notice are intact and fully functioning or capable of being functional after refurbishment and that the used CRTs will be reused or refurbished and reused. I certify under penalty of law that I have personally examined and am familiar with the information submitted in this and all attached documents and that, based on my inquiry of those individuals immediately responsible for obtaining the information, I believe that the submitted information is true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment.”
(b) CRT exporters of used, intact CRTs sent for reuse must keep copies of normal business records, such as contracts, demonstrating that each shipment of exported used, intact CRTs will be reused. This documentation must be retained for a period of at least three years from the date the CRTs were exported. If the documents are written in a language other than English, CRT exporters of used, intact CRTs sent for reuse must provide both the original, non-English version of the normal business records as well as a third-party translation of the normal business records into English within thirty (30) days upon request by EPA.
SUBPART F
[Reserved]
SUBPART G
[Reserved]
SUBPART H
Financial Requirements for Management of Excluded Hazardous Secondary Materials
261.140. Applicability.
(b) States and the federal government are exempt from the financial assurance requirements of this subpart.
261.141. Definitions of terms as used in this subpart.
The terms defined in section 265.141(d), (f), (g), and (h) have the same meaning in this subpart as they do in section 265.141.
261.142. Cost estimate.
(a) The owner or operator must have a detailed written estimate, in current dollars, of the cost of disposing of any hazardous secondary material as listed or characteristic hazardous waste, and the potential cost of closing the facility as a treatment, storage, and disposal facility.
(b) During the active life of the facility, the owner or operator must adjust the cost estimate for inflation within sixty (60) days prior to the anniversary date of the establishment of the financial instrument(s) used to comply with section 261.143. For owners and operators using the financial test or corporate guarantee, the cost estimate must be updated for inflation within thirty (30) days after the close of the firm’s fiscal year and before submission of updated information to the Department as specified in section 261.143(e)(3). The adjustment may be made by recalculating the cost estimate in current dollars, or by using an inflation factor derived from the most recent Implicit Price Deflator for Gross National Product published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in its Survey of Current Business, as specified in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section. The inflation factor is the result of dividing the latest published annual Deflator by the Deflator for the previous year.
(d) The owner or operator must keep the following at the facility during the operating life of the facility: The latest cost estimate prepared in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (c) and, when this estimate has been adjusted in accordance with paragraph (b), the latest adjusted cost estimate.
261.143. Financial assurance condition.
Per section 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F), an owner or operator of a reclamation or intermediate facility must have financial assurance as a condition of the exclusion as required under section 261.4(a)(24). They must choose from the options as specified in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
(a) Trust fund.
(8) The Department will agree to termination of the trust when:
(b) Surety bond guaranteeing payment into a trust fund.
(3) The owner or operator who uses a surety bond to satisfy the requirements of this section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the bond, all payments made thereunder will be deposited by the surety directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Department. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this section, except that:
(ii) Until the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(4) The bond must guarantee that the owner or operator will:
(ii) Fund the standby trust fund in an amount equal to the penal sum within fifteen (15) days after an administrative order to begin closure issued by the Department becomes final, or within fifteen (15) days after an order to begin closure is issued by a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction; or
(iii) Provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section, and obtain the Department’s written approval of the assurance provided, within ninety (90) days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Department of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety.
(c) Letter of credit.
(3) An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this section must also establish a standby trust fund. Under the terms of the letter of credit, all amounts paid pursuant to a draft by the Department will be deposited by the issuing institution directly into the standby trust fund in accordance with instructions from the Department. This standby trust fund must meet the requirements of the trust fund specified in paragraph (a) of this section, except that:
(ii) Unless the standby trust fund is funded pursuant to the requirements of this section, the following are not required by these regulations:
(10) The Department will return the letter of credit to the issuing institution for termination when:
(d) Insurance.
(8) The policy must provide that the insurer may not cancel, terminate, or fail to renew the policy except for failure to pay the premium. The automatic renewal of the policy must, at a minimum, provide the insured with the option of renewal at the face amount of the expiring policy. If there is a failure to pay the premium, the insurer may elect to cancel, terminate, or fail to renew the policy by sending notice by certified mail to the owner or operator and the Department. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur, however, during the one hundred twenty (120) days beginning with the date of receipt of the notice by both the Department and the owner or operator, as evidenced by the return receipts. Cancellation, termination, or failure to renew may not occur and the policy will remain in full force and effect in the event that on or before the date of expiration:
(ii) Conditional exclusion or interim status is lost, terminated, or revoked; or
(iii) Closure is ordered by the Department or a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction; or
(10) The Department will give written consent to the owner or operator that the insurance policy may be terminated when:
(e) Financial test and corporate guarantee.
(1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by demonstrating that they pass a financial test as specified in this paragraph. To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of either paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section:
(i) The owner or operator must have:
(ii) The owner or operator must have:
(3) To demonstrate that they meet this test, the owner or operator must submit the following items to the Department:
(ii) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year; and
(iii) If the chief financial officer’s letter providing evidence of financial assurance includes financial data showing that the owner or operator satisfies paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section that are different from the data in the audited financial statements referred to in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section or any other audited financial statement or data filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), then a special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent certified public accountant to the owner or operator is required. The special report shall be based on an agreed upon procedures engagement in accordance with professional auditing standards and shall describe the procedures performed in comparing the data in the chief financial officer’s letter derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in such financial statements, the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any differences.
(4) The owner or operator may obtain an extension of the time allowed for submission of the documents specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section if the fiscal year of the owner or operator ends during the ninety (90) days prior to the effective date of these regulations and if the year-end financial statements for that fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant. The extension will end no later than ninety (90) days after the end of the owner’s or operator’s fiscal year. To obtain the extension, the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer must send, by the effective date of these regulations, a letter to the Department. This letter from the chief financial officer must:
(ii) Certify that they have grounds to believe that the owner or operator meets the criteria of the financial test;
(iii) Specify for each facility to be covered by the test the EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates to be covered by the test;
(9) The owner or operator is no longer required to submit the items specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section when:
(10) An owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a written guarantee. The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in paragraphs (e)(1) through (8) of this section and must comply with the terms of the guarantee. The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording specified in section 261.151(g)(1). A certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Department as specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, the letter must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee. The terms of the guarantee must provide that:
(ii) The corporate guarantee will remain in force unless the guarantor sends notice of cancellation by certified mail to the owner or operator and to the Department. Cancellation may not occur, however, during the one hundred twenty (120) days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the Department, as evidenced by the return receipts.
(iii) If the owner or operator fails to provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this section and obtain the written approval of such alternate assurance from the Department within ninety (90) days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the Department of a notice of cancellation of the corporate guarantee from the guarantor, the guarantor will provide such alternate financial assurance in the name of the owner or operator.
(h) Removal and Decontamination Plan for Release.
(2) The plan must include, at least:
(ii) A detailed description of the steps necessary to remove or decontaminate all hazardous secondary material residues and contaminated containment system components, equipment, structures, and soils including, but not limited to, procedures for cleaning equipment and removing contaminated soils, methods for sampling and testing surrounding soils, and criteria for determining the extent of decontamination necessary to protect human health and the environment;
(iii) A detailed description of any other activities necessary to protect human health and the environment during this timeframe, including, but not limited to, leachate collection, run-on and run-off control, etc; and
(i) Release of the owner or operator from the requirements of this section. Within sixty (60) days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and a qualified Professional Engineer that all hazardous secondary materials have been removed from the facility or a unit at the facility, and the facility or a unit has been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan per paragraph (h), the Department will notify the owner or operator in writing that they are no longer required under section 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F) to maintain financial assurance for that facility or a unit at the facility, unless the Department has reason to believe that all hazardous secondary materials have not been removed from the facility or unit at a facility, or that the facility or unit has not been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan. The Department shall provide the owner or operator a detailed written statement of any such reason to believe that all hazardous secondary materials have not been removed from the unit or that the unit has not been decontaminated in accordance with the approved plan.
261.144. Reserved.
261.145. Reserved.
261.146. Reserved.
261.147. Liability requirements.
(a) Coverage for sudden accidental occurrences. An owner or operator of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or an intermediate facility subject to financial assurance requirements under section 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F), or a group of such facilities, must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator must have and maintain liability coverage for sudden accidental occurrences in the amount of at least one (1) million dollars per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at least two (2) million dollars, exclusive of legal defense costs. This liability coverage may be demonstrated as specified in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section:
(1) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having liability insurance as specified in this paragraph.
(7) An owner or operator shall notify the Department in writing within thirty (30) days whenever:
(ii) A Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is entered between the owner or operator and third-party claimant for liability coverage under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section; or
(iii) A final court order establishing a judgment for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility is issued against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing financial assurance for liability coverage under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section.
(b) Coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences. An owner or operator of a hazardous secondary material reclamation facility or intermediate facility with land-based units, as defined in section 260.10, which are used to manage hazardous secondary materials excluded under section 261.4(a)(24) or a group of such facilities, must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator must have and maintain liability coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences in the amount of at least three (3) million dollars per occurrence with an annual aggregate of at least $6 million, exclusive of legal defense costs. An owner or operator who must meet the requirements of this section may combine the required per-occurrence coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences into a single per-occurrence level, and combine the required annual aggregate coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences into a single annual aggregate level. Owners or operators who combine coverage levels for sudden and nonsudden accidental occurrences must maintain liability coverage in the amount of at least four (4) million dollars per occurrence and eight (8) million dollars annual aggregate. This liability coverage may be demonstrated as specified in paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section:
(1) An owner or operator may demonstrate the required liability coverage by having liability insurance as specified in this paragraph.
(7) An owner or operator shall notify the Department in writing within thirty (30) days whenever:
(ii) A Certification of Valid Claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material treatment and/or storage facility is entered between the owner or operator and third-party claimant for liability coverage under paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section; or
(iii) A final court order establishing a judgment for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or non-sudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous secondary material treatment and/or storage facility is issued against the owner or operator or an instrument that is providing financial assurance for liability coverage under paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section.
(f) Financial test for liability coverage.
(1) An owner or operator may satisfy the requirements of this section by demonstrating that they pass a financial test as specified in this paragraph. To pass this test the owner or operator must meet the criteria of paragraph (f)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section:
(i) The owner or operator must have:
(C) Assets in the United States amounting to either:
(ii) The owner or operator must have:
(D) Assets in the United States amounting to either:
(3) To demonstrate that they meet this test, the owner or operator must submit the following three (3) items to the Department:
(ii) A copy of the independent certified public accountant’s report on examination of the owner’s or operator’s financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year.
(iii) If the chief financial officer’s letter providing evidence of financial assurance includes financial data showing that the owner or operator satisfies paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section that are different from the data in the audited financial statements referred to in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section or any other audited financial statement or data filed with the SEC, then a special report from the owner’s or operator’s independent certified public accountant to the owner or operator is required. The special report shall be based on an agreed upon procedures engagement in accordance with professional auditing standards and shall describe the procedures performed in comparing the data in the chief financial officer’s letter derived from the independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest fiscal year with the amounts in such financial statements, the findings of the comparison, and the reasons for any difference.
(4) The owner or operator may obtain a one-time extension of the time allowed for submission of the documents specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section if the fiscal year of the owner or operator ends during the ninety (90) days prior to the effective date of these regulations and if the year-end financial statements for that fiscal year will be audited by an independent certified public accountant. The extension will end no later than ninety (90) days after the end of the owner’s or operator’s fiscal year. To obtain the extension, the owner’s or operator’s chief financial officer must send, by the effective date of these regulations, a letter to the Department and to each state agency or Regional Administrator, as appropriate, where the owner’s or operator’s facilities to be covered by the financial test are located. This letter from the chief financial officer must:
(ii) Certify that there are grounds to believe that the owner or operator meets the criteria of the financial test;
(iii) Specify for each facility to be covered by the test the EPA Identification Number, name, address, the amount of liability coverage and, when applicable, current closure and post-closure cost estimates to be covered by the test;
(g) Guarantee for liability coverage.
(1) Subject to paragraph (g)(2) of this section, an owner or operator may meet the requirements of this section by obtaining a written guarantee, hereinafter referred to as “guarantee.” The guarantor must be the direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator, a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, or a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator. The guarantor must meet the requirements for owners or operators in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(6) of this section. The wording of the guarantee must be identical to the wording specified in section 261.151(g)(2). A certified copy of the guarantee must accompany the items sent to the Department as specified in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. One of these items must be the letter from the guarantor’s chief financial officer. If the guarantor’s parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator, this letter must describe the value received in consideration of the guarantee. If the guarantor is a firm with a “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator, this letter must describe this “substantial business relationship” and the value received in consideration of the guarantee.
(ii) [Reserved]
(2)(i) In the case of corporations incorporated in the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if the Attorney General or Insurance Commissioner of:
(ii) In the case of corporations incorporated outside the United States, a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if:
(h) Letter of credit for liability coverage.
(i) Surety bond for liability coverage.
(4) A surety bond may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section only if the Attorney General or Insurance Commissioner of:
(j) Trust fund for liability coverage.
(4) The wording of the trust fund must be identical to the wording specified in section 261.151(l).
261.148. Incapacity of owners or operators, guarantors, or financial institutions.
(b) An owner or operator who fulfills the requirements of section 261.143 or section 261.147 by obtaining a trust fund, surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy will be deemed to be without the required financial assurance or liability coverage in the event of bankruptcy of the trustee or issuing institution, or a suspension or revocation of the authority of the trustee institution to act as trustee or of the institution issuing the surety bond, letter of credit, or insurance policy to issue such instruments. The owner or operator must establish other financial assurance or liability coverage within sixty (60) days after such an event.
261.151. Wording of the instruments.
(a)(1) A trust agreement for a trust fund, as specified in section 261.143(a) must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix A-1, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
(f) A letter from the chief financial officer, as specified in section 261.147(f) must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix F, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
(g)(1) A corporate guarantee, as specified in section 261.143(e), must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix G-1, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
(k) A surety bond, as specified in section 261.147(i), must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix K, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
(2) Section 261.151 Appendix L-2 is an example of the certification of acknowledgement which must accompany the trust agreement for a trust fund as specified in section 261.147(j).
(m)(1) A standby trust agreement, as specified in section 261.147(h), must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix M-1, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
(2) Section 261.151 Appendix M-2 is an example of the certification of acknowledgement which must accompany the trust agreement for a standby trust fund as specified in section 261.147(h).
Appendix A-1
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT TRUST AGREEMENT, the “Agreement,” entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator], a [name of State] [insert “corporation,” “partnership,” “association,” or “proprietorship”], the “Grantor,” and [name of corporate trustee], [insert “incorporated in the State of ___-----” or “a national bank”], the “Trustee.”
WHEREAS, the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, hereafter referred to as the “Department,” an agency of South Carolina, has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator of a facility regulated under R.61-79.264 or 265, or satisfying the conditions of the exclusion under section 261.4(a)(24) shall provide assurance that funds will be available if needed for care of the facility under subpart G of R.61-79.264 or 265, as applicable,
WHEREAS, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to provide all or part of such financial assurance for the facilities identified herein,
WHEREAS, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this Agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee,
NOW, THEREFORE, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement:
(b) The term “Trustee” means the Trustee who enters into this Agreement and any successor Trustee.
Section 2. Identification of Facilities and Cost Estimates. This Agreement pertains to the facilities and cost estimates identified on attached Schedule A [on Schedule A, for each facility list the EPA Identification Number (if available), name, address, and the current cost estimates, or portions thereof, for which financial assurance is demonstrated by this Agreement].
Section 3. Establishment of Fund. The Grantor and the Trustee hereby establish a trust fund, the “Fund,” for the benefit of the Department in the event that the hazardous secondary materials of the Grantor no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under section 261.4(a)(24). The Grantor and the Trustee intend that no third party have access to the Fund except as herein provided. The Fund is established initially as consisting of the property, which is acceptable to the Trustee, described in Schedule B attached hereto. Such property and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by the Department.
Section 4. Payments from the Fund. The Trustee shall make payments from the Fund as the Department shall direct, in writing, to provide for the payment of the costs of the performance of activities required under subpart G of R.61-79.264 or 265 for the facilities covered by this Agreement. The Trustee shall reimburse the Grantor or other persons as specified by the Department from the Fund for expenditures for such activities in such amounts as the beneficiary shall direct in writing. In addition, the Trustee shall refund to the Grantor such amounts as the Department specifies in writing. Upon refund, such funds shall no longer constitute part of the Fund as defined herein.
Section 5. Payments Comprising the Fund. Payments made to the Trustee for the Fund shall consist of cash or securities acceptable to the Trustee.
Section 6. Trustee Management. The Trustee shall invest and reinvest the principal and income of the Fund and keep the Fund invested as a single fund, without distinction between principal and income, in accordance with general investment policies and guidelines which the Grantor may communicate in writing to the Trustee from time to time, subject, however, to the provisions of this section. In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the Trustee shall discharge his duties with respect to the trust fund solely in the interest of the beneficiary and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters, would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims; except that:
(c) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the payment of interest thereon.
Section 7. Commingling and Investment. The Trustee is expressly authorized in its discretion:
(b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., including one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may vote such shares in its discretion.
Section 8. Express Powers of Trustee. Without in any way limiting the powers and discretions conferred upon the Trustee by the other provisions of this Agreement or by law, the Trustee is expressly authorized and empowered:
(e) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or against the Fund.
Section 9. Taxes and Expenses. All taxes of any kind that may be assessed or levied against or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions incurred by the Fund shall be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by the Trustee in connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees for legal services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to the extent not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and disbursements of the Trustee shall be paid from the Fund.
Section 10. Annual Valuation. The Trustee shall annually, at least thirty (30) days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund, furnish to the Grantor and to the Department a statement confirming the value of the Trust. Any securities in the Fund shall be valued at market value as of no more than sixty (60) days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund. The failure of the Grantor to object in writing to the Trustee within ninety (90) days after the statement has been furnished to the Grantor and the Department shall constitute a conclusively binding assent by the Grantor, barring the Grantor from asserting any claim or liability against the Trustee with respect to matters disclosed in the statement.
Section 11. Advice of Counsel. The Trustee may from time to time consult with counsel, who may be counsel to the Grantor, with respect to any question arising as to the construction of this Agreement or any action to be taken hereunder. The Trustee shall be fully protected, to the extent permitted by law, in acting upon the advice of counsel.
Section 12. Trustee Compensation. The Trustee shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for its services as agreed upon in writing from time to time with the Grantor.
Section 13. Successor Trustee. The Trustee may resign or the Grantor may replace the Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not be effective until the Grantor has appointed a successor trustee and this successor accepts the appointment. The successor trustee shall have the same powers and duties as those conferred upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon the successor trustee’s acceptance of the appointment, the Trustee shall assign, transfer, and pay over to the successor trustee the funds and properties then constituting the Fund. If for any reason the Grantor cannot or does not act in the event of the resignation of the Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a successor trustee or for instructions. The successor trustee shall specify the date on which it assumes administration of the trust in a writing sent to the Grantor, the Department, and the present Trustee by certified mail ten (10) days before such change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a result of any of the acts contemplated by this Section shall be paid as provided in Section 9.
Section 14. Instructions to the Trustee. All orders, requests, and instructions by the Grantor to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by such persons as are designated in the attached Exhibit A or such other designees as the Grantor may designate by amendment to Exhibit A. The Trustee shall be fully protected in acting without inquiry in accordance with the Grantor’s orders, requests, and instructions. All orders, requests, and instructions by the Department to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by the Department, or their designees, and the Trustee shall act and shall be fully protected in acting in accordance with such orders, requests, and instructions. The Trustee shall have the right to assume, in the absence of written notice to the contrary, that no event constituting a change or a termination of the authority of any person to act on behalf of the Grantor or the Department hereunder has occurred. The Trustee shall have no duty to act in the absence of such orders, requests, and instructions from the Grantor and/or Department, except as provided for herein.
Section 15. Amendment of Agreement. This Agreement may be amended by an instrument in writing executed by the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Department, or by the Trustee and the Department if the Grantor ceases to exist.
Section 16. Irrevocability and Termination. Subject to the right of the parties to amend this Agreement as provided in Section 16, this Trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated at the written agreement of the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Department, or by the Trustee and the Department, if the Grantor ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all remaining trust property, less final trust administration expenses, shall be delivered to the Grantor.
Section 17. Immunity and Indemnification. The Trustee shall not incur personal liability of any nature in connection with any act or omission, made in good faith, in the administration of this Trust, or in carrying out any directions by the Grantor or the Department issued in accordance with this Agreement. The Trustee shall be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor or from the Trust Fund, or both, from and against any personal liability to which the Trustee may be subjected by reason of any act or conduct in its official capacity, including all expenses reasonably incurred in its defense in the event the Grantor fails to provide such defense.
Section 18. Choice of Law. This Agreement shall be administered, construed, and enforced according to the laws of South Carolina
Section 19. Interpretation. As used in this Agreement, words in the singular include the plural and words in the plural include the singular. The descriptive headings for each Section of this Agreement shall not affect the interpretation or the legal efficacy of this Agreement.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date first above written: The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix A-1 as such regulations were constituted on the date set forth above.
| [Signature of Grantor] | ||
| [Title] | ||
| Attest: | ||
| [Title] | ||
| [Seal] | ||
| [Signature of Trustee] | ||
| Attest: | ||
| [Title] | ||
| [Seal] |
Appendix A-2
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Certificate of Acknowledgement
State of _______________
County of _______________
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that they reside at [address], that they are [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that they know the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that they signed their name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
Appendix B
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Financial Guarantee Bond
Date bond executed: ______________________________
Effective date: ______________________________
Principal: [legal name and business address of owner or operator] ______________________________
Type of Organization: [insert “individual,” “joint venture,” “partnership,” or “corporation”] ______________________________
State of incorporation: ______________________________
Surety(ies): [name(s) and business address(es)] ______________________________
EPA Identification Number, name, address, and amount(s) for each facility guaranteed by this bond: ______________________________
Total penal sum of bond: $ _________________________
Surety’s bond number: _________________________
Know All Persons By These Presents, That we, the Principal and Surety(ies) are firmly bound to the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, hereafter referred to as the “Department,” in the event that the hazardous secondary materials at the reclamation or intermediate facility listed below no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under section 261.4(a)(24), in the above penal sum for the payment of which we bind ourselves, our heirs, executors, administrators, successors, and assigns jointly and severally; provided that, where the Surety(ies) are corporations acting as co sureties, we, the Sureties, bind ourselves in such sum “jointly and severally” only for the purpose of allowing a joint action or actions against any or all of us, and for all other purposes each Surety binds itself, jointly and severally with the Principal, for the payment of such sum only as is set forth opposite the name of such Surety, but if no limit of liability is indicated, the limit of liability shall be the full amount of the penal sum.
WHEREAS said Principal is required, under the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Regulation to have a permit or interim status in order to own or operate each facility identified above, or to meet conditions under section 261.4(a)(24),
WHEREAS said Principal is required to provide financial assurance as a condition of the permit or interim status or as a condition of an exclusion under R.61-79.261.4(a)(24),
WHEREAS said Principal shall establish a standby trust fund as is required when a surety bond is used to provide such financial assurance,
NOW, THEREFORE, the conditions of the obligation are such that if the Principal shall faithfully, before the beginning of final closure of each facility identified above, fund the standby trust fund in the amount(s) identified above for the facility,
OR, if the Principal shall satisfy all the conditions established for exclusion of hazardous secondary materials from coverage as solid waste under section 261.4(a)(24),
OR, if the Principal shall fund the standby trust fund in such amount(s) within fifteen (15) days after a final order to begin closure is issued by the Department or a U.S. district court or other court of competent jurisdiction,
OR, if the Principal shall provide alternate financial assurance, as specified in subpart H of R.61-79.261, as applicable, and obtain the Department’s written approval of such assurance, within ninety (90) days after the date notice of cancellation is received by both the Principal and the Department from the Surety(ies), then this obligation shall be null and void; otherwise it is to remain in full force and effect.
The Surety(ies) shall become liable on this bond obligation only when the Principal has failed to fulfill the conditions described above. Upon notification by the Department that the Principal has failed to perform as guaranteed by this bond, the Surety(ies) shall place funds in the amount guaranteed for the facility(ies) into the standby trust fund as directed by the Department.
The liability of the Surety(ies) shall not be discharged by any payment or succession of payments hereunder, unless and until such payment or payments shall amount in the aggregate to the penal sum of the bond, but in no event shall the obligation of the Surety(ies) hereunder exceed the amount of said penal sum.
The Surety(ies) may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation by certified mail to the Principal and to the Department, provided, however, that cancellation shall not occur during the one hundred twenty (120) days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the Principal and the Department, as evidenced by the return receipts.
The Principal may terminate this bond by sending written notice to the Surety(ies), provided, however, that no such notice shall become effective until the Surety(ies) receive(s) written authorization for termination of the bond by the Department.
[The following paragraph is an optional rider that may be included but is not required.]
Principal and Surety(ies) hereby agree to adjust the penal sum of the bond yearly so that it guarantees a new amount, provided that the penal sum does not increase by more than twenty (20) percent in any one year, and no decrease in the penal sum takes place without the written permission of the Department.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Financial Guarantee Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix B as such regulations were constituted on the date this bond was executed.
Principal
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s)]
[Title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
Corporate Surety(ies)
[Name and address]
State of incorporation: ______________________________
Liability limit: $ ______________________________
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s) and title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
[For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal, and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.]
Bond premium: $ ______________________________
Appendix C
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit
Chief
Bureau of Land and Waste Management
2600 Bull Street
Columbia, SC, 29021
Dear Sir or Madam: We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. _____ in your favor, in the event that the hazardous secondary materials at the covered reclamation or intermediary facility(ies) no longer meet the conditions of the exclusion under section 261.4(a)(24), at the request and for the account of [owner’s or operator’s name and address] up to the aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $ _____, available upon presentation of
(2) your signed statement reading as follows: “I certify that the amount of the draft is payable pursuant to regulations issued under authority of the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act.”
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least one (1) year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least one (1) year] on [date] and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least one hundred twenty (120) days before the current expiration date, we notify both you and [owner’s or operator’s name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date. In the event you are so notified, any unused portion of the credit shall be available upon presentation of your sight draft for one hundred twenty (120) days after the date of receipt by both you and [owner’s or operator’s name], as shown on the signed return receipts.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us, and we shall deposit the amount of the draft directly into the standby trust fund of [owner’s or operator’s name] in accordance with your instructions.
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix C as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution] [Date]
This credit is subject to [insert “the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce,” or “the Uniform Commercial Code”].
Appendix D
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Certificate of Insurance
Name and Address of Insurer (herein called the “Insurer”):
Name and Address of Insured (herein called the “Insured”):
Facilities Covered: [List for each facility: The EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and the amount of insurance for all facilities covered, which must total the face amount shown below.
Face Amount:
Policy Number: ______________________________
Effective Date:
The Insurer hereby certifies that it has issued to the Insured the policy of insurance identified above to provide financial assurance so that in accordance with applicable regulations all hazardous secondary materials can be removed from the facility or any unit at the facility, and the facility or any unit at the facility can be decontaminated at the facilities identified above. The Insurer further warrants that such policy conforms in all respects with the requirements of section 261.143(d) as applicable and as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below. It is agreed that any provision of the policy inconsistent with such regulations is hereby amended to eliminate such inconsistency.
Whenever requested by the Department, the Insurer agrees to furnish to the Department a duplicate original of the policy listed above, including all endorsements thereon.
I hereby certify that the wording of this certificate is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix D as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Authorized signature for Insurer]
[Name of person signing]
[Title of person signing]
Signature of witness or notary: ______________________________
[Date]
Appendix E
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Letter from Chief Financial Officer
Chief
Bureau of Land and Waste Management
2600 Bull Street
Columbia, SC 29201
Dear Sir or Madam: I am the chief financial officer of [name and address of firm]. This letter is in support of this firm’s use of the financial test to demonstrate financial assurance, as specified in subpart H of R.61-79.261.
[Fill out the following nine paragraphs regarding facilities and associated cost estimates. If your firm has no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates.]
9. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous waste management facilities for which financial assurance for closure or, if a disposal facility, post-closure care, is not demonstrated to the Department through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of R.61-79.264 and 265 or equivalent or substantially equivalent state mechanisms. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility: ___.
This firm [insert “is required” or “is not required”] to file a Form 10K with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm’s independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of section 261.143 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of section 261.143(e) are used.]
ALTERNATIVE I
| 1. | Sum of current cost estimates [total of all cost estimates shown in the nine paragraphs above | $ | |
| * | 2. | Total liabilities [if any portion of the cost estimates is included in total liabilities, you may deduct the amount of that portion from this line and add that amount to lines 3 and 4] | $ |
| * | 3. | Tangible net worth | $ |
| * | 4. | Net worth | $ |
| * | 5. | Current assets | $ |
| * | 6. | Current liabilities | $ |
| 7. | Net working capital [line 5 minus line 6] | $ | |
| * | 8. | The sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization | $ |
| * | 9. | Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than ninety (90) percent of firm’s assets are located in the U.S.) | $ |
| 10. | Is line 3 at least $10 million? | Yes/No | |
| 11. | Is line 3 at least 6 times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| 12. | Is line 7 at least 6 times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| * | 13. | Are at least ninety (90) percent of firm’s assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 14 | Yes/No |
| 14. | Is line 9 at least 6 times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| 15. | Is line 2 divided by line 4 less than 2.0? | Yes/No | |
| 16. | Is line 8 divided by line 2 greater than 0.1? | Yes/No | |
| 17. | Is line 5 divided by line 6 greater than 1.5? | Yes/No |
ALTERNATIVE II
| 1. | Sum of current cost estimates [total of all cost estimates shown in the eight paragraphs above] | $ | |
| 2. | Current bond rating of most recent issuance of this firm and name of rating service | ||
| 3. | Date of issuance of bond | ||
| 4. | Date of maturity of bond | ||
| * | 5. | Tangible net worth [if any portion of the cost estimates is included in “total liabilities” on your firm’s financial statements, you may add the amount of that portion to this line] | $ |
| * | 6. | Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than 90% of firm’s assets are located in the U.S.) | $ |
| 7. | Is line 5 at least $10 million? | Yes/No | |
| 8. | Is line 5 at least 6 times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| * | 9. | Are at least 90% of firm’s assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 10 | Yes/No |
| 10. | Is line 6 at least 6 times line 1? | Yes/No |
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix E as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature]
[Name]
[Title]
[Date]
Appendix F
Letter from Chief Financial Officer
Chief
Bureau of Land and Waste Management
2600 Bull Street
Columbia, SC 29201
Dear Sir or Madam: I am the chief financial officer of [firm’s name and address]. This letter is in support of the use of the financial test to demonstrate financial responsibility for liability coverage under section 261.147 [insert “and costs assured section 261.143(e)” if applicable] as specified in subpart H of R.61-79.261.
[Fill out the following paragraphs regarding facilities and liability coverage. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address].
The firm identified above is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences is being demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of R.61-79.261: _____
The firm identified above guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of R.61-79.261, liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences at the following facilities owned or operated by the following: _____. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee - _____; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator _____, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee _____]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter.]
The firm identified above is the owner or operator of the following facilities for which liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences is being demonstrated through the financial test specified in subpart H of R.61-79.264 and 265: _____
The firm identified above guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of R.61-79.264 and 265, liability coverage for [insert “sudden” or “nonsudden” or “both sudden and nonsudden”] accidental occurrences at the following facilities owned or operated by the following: ___. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ___; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator ___, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee ___]. [Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter.]
[If you are using the financial test to demonstrate coverage of both liability and costs assured under section 261.143(e) or closure or post-closure care costs under sections 264.143, 264.145, 265.143, or 265.145, fill in the following nine paragraphs regarding facilities and associated cost estimates. If there are no facilities that belong in a particular paragraph, write “None” in the space indicated. For each facility, include its EPA identification number (if any issued), name, address, and current cost estimates.]
7. This firm guarantees, through the guarantee specified in subpart H of R.61-79.264 and 265, the closure or post-closure care of the following facilities owned or operated by the guaranteed party. The current cost estimates for the closure or post-closure care so guaranteed are shown for each facility: _____. The firm identified above is [insert one or more: (1) The direct or higher-tier parent corporation of the owner or operator; (2) owned by the same parent corporation as the parent corporation of the owner or operator, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee _____; or (3) engaged in the following substantial business relationship with the owner or operator _____, and receiving the following value in consideration of this guarantee _____].
[Attach a written description of the business relationship or a copy of the contract establishing such relationship to this letter.]
9. This firm is the owner or operator of the following hazardous waste management facilities for which financial assurance for closure or, if a disposal facility, post-closure care, is not demonstrated to the Department through the financial test or any other financial assurance mechanism specified in subpart H of R.61-79.264 and 265 or equivalent or substantially equivalent state mechanisms. The current closure and/or post-closure cost estimates not covered by such financial assurance are shown for each facility: _____.
This firm [insert “is required” or “is not required”] to file a Form 10K with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for the latest fiscal year.
The fiscal year of this firm ends on [month, day]. The figures for the following items marked with an asterisk are derived from this firm’s independently audited, year-end financial statements for the latest completed fiscal year, ended [date].
Part A. Liability Coverage for Accidental Occurrences
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of section 261.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of section 261.147 are used.]
ALTERNATIVE I
| 1. | Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated | $ _____ | |
| * | 2. | Current assets | $ _____ |
| * | 3. | Current liabilities | $ _____ |
| 4. | Net working capital (line 2 minus line 3) | $ _____ | |
| * | 5. | Tangible net worth | $ _____ |
| * | 6. | If less than ninety (90) percent of assets are located in the U.S., give total U.S. assets | $ _____ |
| 7. | Is line 5 at least ten (10) million dollars? | Yes/No | |
| 8. | Is line 4 at least six (6) times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| 9. | Is line 5 at least six (6) times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| * | 10. | Are at least ninety (90) percent of assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 11 | Yes/No |
| 11. | Is line 6 at least six (6) times line 1? | Yes/No |
ALTERNATIVE II
| 1. | Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated | $ _____ | |
| 2. | Current bond rating of most recent issuance and name of rating service | ||
| 3. | Date of issuance of bond | ||
| 4. | Date of maturity of bond | ||
| 5. | Tangible net worth | $ _____ | |
| 6. | Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than ninety (90) percent of assets are located in the U.S.) | $ _____ | |
| 7. | Is line 5 at least ten (10) million dollars? | Yes/No | |
| 8. | Is line 5 at least six (6) times line 1? | Yes/No | |
| 9. | Are at least ninety (90) percent of assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 10. | Yes/No | |
| 10. | Is line 6 at least six (6) times line 1? | Yes/No |
[Fill in part B if you are using the financial test to demonstrate assurance of both liability coverage and costs assured under section 261.143(e) or closure or post-closure care costs under sections 264.143, 264.145, 265.143, or 265.145.]
Part B. Facility Care and Liability Coverage
[Fill in Alternative I if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(i) of section 261.143 and (f)(1)(i) of section 261.147 are used. Fill in Alternative II if the criteria of paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) of section 261.143 and (f)(1)(ii) of section 261.147 are used.]
ALTERNATIVE I
| 1. | Sum of current cost estimates (total of all cost estimates listed above) | $ _____ | |
| 2. | Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated | $ _____ | |
| 3. | Sum of lines 1 and 2 | $ _____ | |
| * | 4. | Total liabilities (if any portion of your cost estimates is included in your total liabilities, you may deduct that portion from this line and add that amount to lines 5 and 6) | $ _____ |
| * | 5. | Tangible net worth | $ _____ |
| * | 6. | Net worth | $ _____ |
| * | 7. | Current assets | $ _____ |
| * | 8. | Current liabilities | $ _____ |
| 9. | Net working capital (line 7 minus line 8) | $ _____ | |
| * | 10. | The sum of net income plus depreciation, depletion, and amortization | $ _____ |
| * | 11. | Total assets in U.S. (required only if less than ninety (90) percent of assets are located in the U.S.) | $ _____ |
| 12. | Is line 5 at least ten (10) million dollars? | Yes/No | |
| 13. | Is line 5 at least six (6) times line 3? | Yes/No | |
| 14. | Is line 9 at least six (6) times line 3? | Yes/No | |
| * | 15. | Are at least ninety (90) percent of assets located in the U.S.? If not, complete line 16. | Yes/No |
| 16. | Is line 11 at least six (6) times line 3? | Yes/No | |
| 17. | Is line 4 divided by line 6 less than 2.0? | Yes/No | |
| 18. | Is line 10 divided by line 4 greater than 0.1? | Yes/No | |
| 19. | Is line 7 divided by line 8 greater than 1.5? | Yes/No |
ALTERNATIVE II
| 1. | Sum of current cost estimates (total of all cost estimates listed above) | $ _____ | |
| 2. | Amount of annual aggregate liability coverage to be demonstrated | $ _____ | |
| 3. | Sum of lines 1 and 2 | $ _____ | |
| 4. | Current bond rating of most recent issuance and name of rating service | ||
| 5. | Date of issuance of bond | ||
| 6. | Date of maturity of bond | ||
| * | 7. | Tangible net worth (if any portion of the cost estimates is included in “total liabilities” on your financial statements you may add that portion to this line) | $ _____ |
| * | 8. | Total assets in the U.S. (required only if less than ninety (90) percent of assets are located in the U.S.) | $ _____ |
| 9. | Is line 7 at least ten (10) million dollars? | Yes/No | |
| 10. | Is line 7 at least six (6) times line 3? | Yes/No | |
| * | 11. | Are at least ninety (90) percent of assets located in the U.S.? If not complete line 12. | Yes/No |
| 12. | Is line 8 at least six (6) times line 3? | Yes/No |
I hereby certify that the wording of this letter is identical to the wording specified in sections 261.151 Appendix F as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature]
[Name]
[Title]
[Date]
Appendix G-1
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Corporate Guarantee for Facility Care
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of South Carolina, herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of the [owner or operator] of [business address], which is [one of the following: “our subsidiary”; “a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary”; or “an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in sections 264.141(h) and 265.141(h)” to the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, hereafter referred to as the “Department.”
Recitals
(l)(1) A trust agreement, as specified in section 261.147(j), must be worded as noted in section 261.151 Appendix L-1, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted.
10. [Insert the following language if the guarantor is (a) a direct or higher-tier corporate parent, or (b) a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the Department and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the Department approves, alternate coverage complying with section 261.143.
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee one hundred twenty (120) days following the receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the Department and by [the owner or operator].
12. Guarantor expressly waives notice of acceptance of this guarantee by the Department or by [owner or operator]. Guarantor also expressly waives notice of amendments or modifications of the closure plan and of amendments or modifications of the applicable requirements of R.61-79.264, 265, or subpart H of R.61-79.261.
I hereby certify that the wording of this guarantee is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix G-1 as such regulations were constituted on the date first above written.
Effective date:
[Name of guarantor]
[Authorized signature for guarantor]
[Name of person signing]
[Title of person signing]
Signature of witness or notary:
Appendix G-2
Guarantee for Liability Coverage
Guarantee made this [date] by [name of guaranteeing entity], a business corporation organized under the laws of South Carolina, herein referred to as guarantor. This guarantee is made on behalf of [owner or operator] of [business address], which is one of the following: “our subsidiary”; “a subsidiary of [name and address of common parent corporation], of which guarantor is a subsidiary”; or “an entity with which guarantor has a substantial business relationship, as defined in R.61-79 [either 264.141(h) or 265.141(h)],” to any and all third parties who have sustained or may sustain bodily injury or property damage caused by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies) covered by this guarantee.
Recitals
4. Such obligation does not apply to any of the following:
(c) Bodily injury to:
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert owner or operator]. This exclusion applies:
(e) Property damage to:
9. [Insert the following language if the guarantor is (a) a direct or higher-tier corporate parent, or (b) a firm whose parent corporation is also the parent corporation of the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee by sending notice by certified mail to the Department and to [owner or operator], provided that this guarantee may not be terminated unless and until [the owner or operator] obtains, and the Department approve, alternate liability coverage complying with R.61-79.261.147.
[Insert the following language if the guarantor is a firm qualifying as a guarantor due to its “substantial business relationship” with the owner or operator]:
Guarantor may terminate this guarantee one hundred twenty (120) days following receipt of notification, through certified mail, by the Department and by [the owner or operator].
13. The Guarantor shall satisfy a third-party liability claim only on receipt of one of the following documents:
(a) Certification from the Principal and the third-party claimant(s) that the liability claim should be paid. The certification must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert Principal] and [insert name and address of third-party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Principal’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $[insert amount].
[Signatures]
Principal
(Notary) Date
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
(Notary) Date
14. In the event of combination of this guarantee with another mechanism to meet liability requirements, this guarantee will be considered [insert “primary” or “excess”] coverage.
I hereby certify that the wording of the guarantee is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix G-2 as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
Effective date:
[Name of guarantor]
[Authorized signature for guarantor]
[Name of person signing]
[Title of person signing]
Signature of witness or notary:
Appendix H
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Hazardous Secondary Material Reclamation/Intermediate Facility Liability Endorsement
2. The insurance afforded with respect to such occurrences is subject to all of the terms and conditions of the policy; provided, however, that any provisions of the policy inconsistent with subsections (a) through (e) of this Paragraph 2 are hereby amended to conform with subsections (a) through (e):
(e) Any other termination of this endorsement will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of thirty (30) days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Department.
Attached to and forming part of policy No. ___ issued by [name of Insurer], herein called the Insurer, of [address of Insurer] to [name of insured] of [address] this __________ day of __________, 20 ___. The effective date of said policy is __________ day of __________, 20 ___.
I hereby certify that the wording of this endorsement is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix H as such regulation was constituted on the date set forth above, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
[Signature of Authorized Representative of Insurer]
[Type name]
[Title], Authorized Representative of [name of Insurer]
[Address of Representative]
Appendix I
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Hazardous Secondary Material Reclamation/Intermediate Facility Certificate of Liability Insurance
2. The Insurer further certifies the following with respect to the insurance described in Paragraph 1:
(e) Any other termination of the insurance will be effective only upon written notice and only after the expiration of thirty (30) days after a copy of such written notice is received by the Department.
I hereby certify that the wording of this instrument is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix I as such regulation was constituted on the date set forth above, and that the Insurer is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in one or more states.
[Signature of authorized representative of Insurer]
[Type name]
[Title], Authorized Representative of [name of Insurer]
[Address of Representative]
Appendix J
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit
Chief
Bureau of Land and Waste Management
2600 Bull Street
Columbia, SC 29201
Dear Sir or Madam: We hereby establish our Irrevocable Standby Letter of Credit No. _____ in the favor of [“any and all third-party liability claimants” or insert name of trustee of the standby trust fund], at the request and for the account of [owner or operator’s name and address] for third-party liability awards or settlements up to [in words] U.S. dollars $ _____ per occurrence and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $ _____, for sudden accidental occurrences and/or for third-party liability awards or settlements up to the amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $ _____----- per occurrence, and the annual aggregate amount of [in words] U.S. dollars $ _____, for nonsudden accidental occurrences available upon presentation of a sight draft bearing reference to this letter of credit No. _____, and [insert the following language if the letter of credit is being used without a standby trust fund: (1) a signed certificate reading as follows]:
Certificate of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert principal] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operations of [principal’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $[insert amount]. We hereby certify that the claim does not apply to any of the following:
(c) Bodily injury to:
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert principal].
This exclusion applies:
(e) Property damage to:
(5) That particular part of real property on which [insert principal] or any contractors or subcontractors working directly or indirectly on behalf of [insert principal] are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.
[Signatures]
Grantor
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
or (2) a valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Grantor for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Grantor’s facility or group of facilities.
This letter of credit is effective as of [date] and shall expire on [date at least one year later], but such expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of [at least one year] on [date and on each successive expiration date, unless, at least one hundred twenty (120) days before the current expiration date, we notify you, the Department, and [owner’s or operator’s name] by certified mail that we have decided not to extend this letter of credit beyond the current expiration date.
Whenever this letter of credit is drawn on under and in compliance with the terms of this credit, we shall duly honor such draft upon presentation to us.
[Insert the following language if a standby trust fund is not being used: “In the event that this letter of credit is used in combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, this letter of credit shall be considered [insert “primary” or “excess” coverage].”
We certify that the wording of this letter of credit is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix J as such regulations were constituted on the date shown immediately below.
[Signature(s) and title(s) of official(s) of issuing institution] [Date].
This credit is subject to [insert “the most recent edition of the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, published and copyrighted by the International Chamber of Commerce,” or “the Uniform Commercial Code”].
Appendix K
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Payment Bond
Surety Bond No. [Insert number]
Parties [Insert name and address of owner or operator], Principal, incorporated in [Insert state of incorporation] of [Insert city and state of principal place of business] and [Insert name and address of surety company(ies)], Surety Company(ies), of [Insert surety(ies) place of business].
| EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address for each facility guaranteed by this bond: | |
| Sudden accidental occurrences | Nonsudden accidental occurrences |
| Penal Sum Per Occurrence | [insert amount] [insert amount] |
| Annual Aggregate | [insert amount] [insert amount] |
Purpose: This is an agreement between the Surety(ies) and the Principal under which the Surety(ies), its(their) successors and assignees, agree to be responsible for the payment of claims against the Principal for bodily injury and/or property damage to third parties caused by [“sudden” and/or “nonsudden”] accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities in the sums prescribed herein; subject to the governing provisions and the following conditions.
Governing Provisions:
(3) Rules and regulations of the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, particularly R.61-79.264, 265, and subpart H of R.61-79.261.
Conditions:
(1) The Principal is subject to the applicable governing provisions that require the Principal to have and maintain liability coverage for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by [“sudden” and/or “nonsudden”] accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. Such obligation does not apply to any of the following:
(c) Bodily injury to:
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert Principal]. This exclusion applies:
(e) Property damage to:
(4) The Surety(ies) shall satisfy a third party liability claim only upon the receipt of one of the following documents:
(a) Certification from the Principal and the third party claimant(s) that the liability claim should be paid. The certification must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert name of Principal] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Principal’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $[insert amount].
[Signature]
Principal
[Notary] Date
[Signature(s)]
Claimant(s)
[Notary] Date
or (b) A valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Principal for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Principal’s facility or group of facilities.
(10) This bond is effective from [insert date] (12:01 a.m., standard time, at the address of the Principal as stated herein) and shall continue in force until terminated as described above.
(b) The term “Trustee” means the Trustee who enters into this Agreement and any successor Trustee.
Section 2. Identification of Facilities. This agreement pertains to the facilities identified on attached schedule A [on schedule A, for each facility list the EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address of the facility(ies) and the amount of liability coverage, or portions thereof, if more than one instrument affords combined coverage as demonstrated by this Agreement].
Section 3. Establishment of Fund. The Grantor and the Trustee hereby establish a trust fund, hereinafter the “Fund,” for the benefit of any and all third parties injured or damaged by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies) covered by this guarantee, in the amounts of _____ -[up to $1 million] per occurrence and [up to $2 million] annual aggregate for sudden accidental occurrences and _____ [up to $3 million] per occurrence and _____ -[up to $6 million] annual aggregate for nonsudden occurrences, except that the Fund is not established for the benefit of third parties for the following:
(c) Bodily injury to:
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert Grantor]. This exclusion applies:
(e) Property damage to:
(5) That particular part of real property on which [insert Grantor] or any contractors or subcontractors working directly or indirectly on behalf of [insert Grantor] are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.
In the event of combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, the Fund shall be considered [insert “primary” or “excess”] coverage.
The Fund is established initially as consisting of the property, which is acceptable to the Trustee, described in Schedule B attached hereto. Such property and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by the Department.
Section 4. Payment for Bodily Injury or Property Damage. The Trustee shall satisfy a third party liability claim by making payments from the Fund only upon receipt of one of the following documents;
(a) Certification from the Grantor and the third party claimant(s) that the liability claim should be paid. The certification must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert Grantor] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Grantor’s] facility or group of facilities should be paid in the amount of $[insert amount].
[Signatures]
Grantor
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
(b) A valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Grantor for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Grantor’s facility or group of facilities.
(ii) The Trustee is authorized to invest the Fund in time or demand deposits of the Trustee, to the extent insured by an agency of the federal or state government; and
(iii) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the payment of interest thereon.
Section 7. Commingling and Investment. The Trustee is expressly authorized in its discretion:
Section 5. Payments Comprising the Fund. Payments made to the Trustee for the Fund shall consist of cash or securities acceptable to the Trustee.
Section 6. Trustee Management. The Trustee shall invest and reinvest the principal and income, in accordance with general investment policies and guidelines which the Grantor may communicate in writing to the Trustee from time to time, subject, however, to the provisions of this section. In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the Trustee shall discharge his duties with respect to the trust fund solely in the interest of the beneficiary and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstance then prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters, would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims; except that:
(b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 81a-1 et seq., including one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may vote such shares in its discretion.
Section 8. Express Powers of Trustee. Without in any way limiting the powers and discretions conferred upon the Trustee by the other provisions of this Agreement or by law, the Trustee is expressly authorized and empowered:
(e) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or against the Fund.
Section 9. Taxes and Expenses. All taxes of any kind that may be assessed or levied against or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions incurred by the Fund shall be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by the Trustee in connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees for legal services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to the extent not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and disbursements of the Trustee shall be paid from the Fund.
Section 10. Annual Valuations. The Trustee shall annually, at least thirty (30) days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund, furnish to the Grantor and to the appropriate Department a statement confirming the value of the Trust. Any securities in the Fund shall be valued at market value as of no more than sixty (60) days prior to the anniversary date of establishment of the Fund. The failure of the Grantor to object in writing to the Trustee within ninety (90) days after the statement has been furnished to the Grantor and the Department shall constitute a conclusively binding assent by the Grantor barring the Grantor from asserting any claim or liability against the Trustee with respect to matters disclosed in the statement.
Section 11. Advice of Counsel. The Trustee may from time to time consult with counsel, who may be counsel to the Grantor with respect to any question arising as to the construction of this Agreement or any action to be taken hereunder. The Trustee shall be fully protected, to the extent permitted by law, in acting upon the advice of counsel.
Section 12. Trustee Compensation. The Trustee shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for its services as agreed upon in writing from time to time with the Grantor.
Section 13. Successor Trustee. The Trustee may resign or the Grantor may replace the Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not be effective until the Grantor has appointed a successor trustee and this successor accepts the appointment. The successor trustee shall have the same powers and duties as those conferred upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon the successor trustee’s acceptance of the appointment, the Trustee shall assign, transfer, and pay over to the successor trustee the funds and properties then constituting the Fund. If for any reason the Grantor cannot or does not act in the event of the resignation of the Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a successor trustee or for instructions. The successor trustee shall specify the date on which it assumes administration of the trust in a writing sent to the Grantor, the Department, and the present Trustee by certified mail ten (10) days before such change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a result of any of the acts contemplated by this section shall be paid as provided in Section 9.
Section 14. Instructions to the Trustee. All orders, requests, and instructions by the Grantor to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by such persons as are designated in the attached Exhibit A or such other designees as the Grantor may designate by amendments to Exhibit A. The Trustee shall be fully protected in acting without inquiry in accordance with the Grantor’s orders, requests, and instructions. All orders, requests, and instructions by the Department to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by the Department, or their designees, and the Trustee shall act and shall be fully protected in acting in accordance with such orders, requests, and instructions. The Trustee shall have the right to assume, in the absence of written notice to the contrary, that no event constituting a change or a termination of the authority of any person to act on behalf of the Grantor or the Department hereunder has occurred. The Trustee shall have no duty to act in the absence of such orders, requests, and instructions from the Grantor and/or the Department, except as provided for herein.
Section 15. Notice of Nonpayment. If a payment for bodily injury or property damage is made under Section 4 of this trust, the Trustee shall notify the Grantor of such payment and the amount(s) thereof within five (5) days. The Grantor shall, on or before the anniversary date of the establishment of the Fund following such notice, either make payments to the Trustee in amounts sufficient to cause the trust to return to its value immediately prior to the payment of claims under Section 4, or shall provide written proof to the Trustee that other financial assurance for liability coverage has been obtained equaling the amount necessary to return the trust to its value prior to the payment of claims. If the Grantor does not either make payments to the Trustee or provide the Trustee with such proof, the Trustee shall within 10 (ten) working days after the anniversary date of the establishment of the Fund provide a written notice of nonpayment to the Department.
Section 16. Amendment of Agreement. This Agreement may be amended by an instrument in writing executed by the Grantor, the Trustee, and the appropriate Department, or by the Trustee and the appropriate Department if the Grantor ceases to exist.
Section 17. Irrevocability and Termination. Subject to the right of the parties to amend this Agreement as provided in Section 16, this Trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated at the written agreement of the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Department, or by the Trustee and the Department, if the Grantor ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all remaining trust property, less final trust administration expenses, shall be delivered to the Grantor.
The Department will agree to termination of the Trust when the owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this section.
Section 18. Immunity and Indemnification. The Trustee shall not incur personal liability of any nature in connection with any act or omission, made in good faith, in the administration of this Trust, or in carrying out any directions by the Grantor or the Department issued in accordance with this Agreement. The Trustee shall be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor or from the Trust Fund, or both, from and against any personal liability to which the Trustee may be subjected by reason of any act or conduct in its official capacity, including all expenses reasonably incurred in its defense in the event the Grantor fails to provide such defense.
Section 19. Choice of Law. This Agreement shall be administered, construed, and enforced according to the laws of South Carolina.
Section 20. Interpretation. As used in this Agreement, words in the singular include the plural and words in the plural include the singular. The descriptive headings for each section of this Agreement shall not affect the interpretation or the legal efficacy of this Agreement.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date set forth above. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in R.61-79.261.151 Appendix L as such regulations were constituted on the date set forth above.
[Signature of Grantor]
[Title]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
[Signature of Trustee]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
Appendix L-2
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
State of _______________
County of _______________
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that they reside at [address], that they are [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that they know the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that they signed their name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
Appendix M-1
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Standby Trust Agreement
Trust Agreement, the “Agreement,” entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator] a [name of a state] [insert “corporation,” “partnership,” “association,” or “proprietorship”], the “Grantor,” and [name of corporate trustee], [insert, “incorporated” in [name of state] or “a national bank”], the “trustee.”
WHEREAS the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, hereafter referred to as the “Department,” an agency of South Carolina, has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental and/or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities.
WHEREAS, the Grantor has elected to establish a standby trust into which the proceeds from a letter of credit may be deposited to assure all or part of such financial responsibility for the facilities identified herein.
WHEREAS, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee.
NOW, THEREFORE, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement:
(b) The term Trustee means the Trustee who enters into this Agreement and any successor Trustee.
Section 2. Identification of Facilities. This Agreement pertains to the facilities identified on attached schedule A [on schedule A, for each facility list the EPA Identification Number (if any issued), name, and address of the facility(ies) and the amount of liability coverage, or portions thereof, if more than one instrument affords combined coverage as demonstrated by this Agreement].
Section 3. Establishment of Fund. The Grantor and the Trustee hereby establish a standby trust fund, hereafter the “Fund,” for the benefit of any and all third parties injured or damaged by [sudden and/or nonsudden] accidental occurrences arising from operation of the facility(ies) covered by this guarantee, in the amounts of _____ -[up to $1 million] per occurrence and _____ -[up to $2 million] annual aggregate for sudden accidental occurrences and _____ -[up to $3 million] per occurrence and _____ -[up to $6 million] annual aggregate for nonsudden occurrences, except that the Fund is not established for the benefit of third parties for the following:
(c) Bodily injury to:
(2) The spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of employment by [insert Grantor].
This exclusion applies:
(e) Property damage to:
(5) That particular part of real property on which [insert Grantor] or any contractors or subcontractors working directly or indirectly on behalf of [insert Grantor] are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.
In the event of combination with another mechanism for liability coverage, the Fund shall be considered [insert “primary” or “excess”] coverage.
The Fund is established initially as consisting of the proceeds of the letter of credit deposited into the Fund. Such proceeds and any other property subsequently transferred to the Trustee is referred to as the Fund, together with all earnings and profits thereon, less any payments or distributions made by the Trustee pursuant to this Agreement. The Fund shall be held by the Trustee, IN TRUST, as hereinafter provided. The Trustee shall not be responsible nor shall it undertake any responsibility for the amount or adequacy of, nor any duty to collect from the Grantor, any payments necessary to discharge any liabilities of the Grantor established by the Department.
Section 4. Payment for Bodily Injury or Property Damage. The Trustee shall satisfy a third party liability claim by drawing on the letter of credit described in Schedule B and by making payments from the Fund only upon receipt of one of the following documents:
(a) Certification from the Grantor and the third party claimant(s) that the liability claim should be paid. The certification must be worded as follows, except that instructions in brackets are to be replaced with the relevant information and the brackets deleted:
Certification of Valid Claim
The undersigned, as parties [insert Grantor] and [insert name and address of third party claimant(s)], hereby certify that the claim of bodily injury and/or property damage caused by a [sudden or nonsudden] accidental occurrence arising from operating [Grantor’s] facility should be paid in the amount of $[insert amount]
[Signature]
Grantor
[Signatures]
Claimant(s)
(b) A valid final court order establishing a judgment against the Grantor for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the Grantor’s facility or group of facilities.
Section 5. Payments Comprising the Fund. Payments made to the Trustee for the Fund shall consist of the proceeds from the letter of credit drawn upon by the Trustee in accordance with the requirements of section 261.151(k) and Section 4 of this Agreement.
Section 6. Trustee Management. The Trustee shall invest and reinvest the principal and income, in accordance with general investment policies and guidelines which the Grantor may communicate in writing to the Trustee from time to time, subject, however, to the provisions of this Section. In investing, reinvesting, exchanging, selling, and managing the Fund, the Trustee shall discharge his duties with respect to the trust fund solely in the interest of the beneficiary and with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing which persons of prudence, acting in a like capacity and familiar with such matters, would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims; except that:
(c) The Trustee is authorized to hold cash awaiting investment or distribution uninvested for a reasonable time and without liability for the payment of interest thereon.
Section 7. Commingling and Investment. The Trustee is expressly authorized in its discretion:
(b) To purchase shares in any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., including one which may be created, managed, underwritten, or to which investment advice is rendered or the shares of which are sold by the Trustee. The Trustee may vote such shares in its discretion.
Section 8. Express Powers of Trustee. Without in any way limiting the powers and discretions conferred upon the Trustee by the other provisions of this Agreement or by law, the Trustee is expressly authorized and empowered:
(e) To compromise or otherwise adjust all claims in favor of or against the Fund.
Section 9. Taxes and Expenses. All taxes of any kind that may be assessed or levied against or in respect of the Fund and all brokerage commissions incurred by the Fund shall be paid from the Fund. All other expenses incurred by the Trustee in connection with the administration of this Trust, including fees for legal services rendered to the Trustee, the compensation of the Trustee to the extent not paid directly by the Grantor, and all other proper charges and disbursements to the Trustee shall be paid from the Fund.
Section 10. Advice of Counsel. The Trustee may from time to time consult with counsel, who may be counsel to the Grantor, with respect to any question arising as to the construction of this Agreement or any action to be taken hereunder. The Trustee shall be fully protected, to the extent permitted by law, in acting upon the advice of counsel.
Section 11. Trustee Compensation. The Trustee shall be entitled to reasonable compensation for its services as agreed upon in writing from time to time with the Grantor.
Section 12. Successor Trustee. The Trustee may resign or the Grantor may replace the Trustee, but such resignation or replacement shall not be effective until the Grantor has appointed a successor trustee and this successor accepts the appointment. The successor trustee shall have the same powers and duties as those conferred upon the Trustee hereunder. Upon the successor trustee’s acceptance of the appointment, the Trustee shall assign, transfer, and pay over to the successor trustee the funds and properties then constituting the Fund. If for any reason the Grantor cannot or does not act in the event of the resignation of the Trustee, the Trustee may apply to a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a successor trustee or for instructions. The successor trustee shall specify the date on which it assumes administration of the trust in a writing sent to the Grantor, the Department, and the present Trustee by certified mail ten (10) days before such change becomes effective. Any expenses incurred by the Trustee as a result of any of the acts contemplated by this Section shall be paid as provided in Section 9.
Section 13. Instructions to the Trustee. All orders, requests, certifications of valid claims, and instructions to the Trustee shall be in writing, signed by such persons as are designated in the attached Exhibit A or such other designees as the Grantor may designate by amendments to Exhibit A. The Trustee shall be fully protected in acting without inquiry in accordance with the Grantor’s orders, requests, and instructions. The Trustee shall have the right to assume, in the absence of written notice to the contrary, that no event constituting a change or a termination of the authority of any person to act on behalf of the Grantor or the Department hereunder has occurred. The Trustee shall have no duty to act in the absence of such orders, requests, and instructions from the Department, except as provided for herein.
Section 14. Amendment of Agreement. This Agreement may be amended by an instrument in writing executed by the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Department, or by the Trustee and the Department if the Grantor ceases to exist.
Section 15. Irrevocability and Termination. Subject to the right of the parties to amend this Agreement as provided in Section 14, this Trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated at the written agreement of the Grantor, the Trustee, and the Department, or by the Trustee and the Department, if the Grantor ceases to exist. Upon termination of the Trust, all remaining trust property, less final trust administration expenses, shall be paid to the Grantor.
The Department will agree to termination of the Trust when the owner or operator substitutes alternative financial assurance as specified in this section.
Section 16. Immunity and indemnification. The Trustee shall not incur personal liability of any nature in connection with any act or omission, made in good faith, in the administration of this Trust, or in carrying out any directions by the Grantor and the Department issued in accordance with this Agreement. The Trustee shall be indemnified and saved harmless by the Grantor or from the Trust Fund, or both, from and against any personal liability to which the Trustee may be subjected by reason of any act or conduct in its official capacity, including all expenses reasonably incurred in its defense in the event the Grantor fails to provide such defense.
Section 17. Choice of Law. This Agreement shall be administered, construed, and enforced according to the laws of South Carolina.
Section 18. Interpretation. As used in this Agreement, words in the singular include the plural and words in the plural include the singular. The descriptive headings for each Section of this Agreement shall not affect the interpretation of the legal efficacy of this Agreement.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the parties have caused this Agreement to be executed by their respective officers duly authorized and their corporate seals to be hereunto affixed and attested as of the date set forth above. The parties below certify that the wording of this Agreement is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix M as such regulations were constituted on the date set forth above.
[Signature of Grantor]
[Title]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
[Signature of Trustee]
Attest:
[Title]
[Seal]
Appendix M-2
State of __________
County of _______________
On this [date], before me personally came [owner or operator] to me known, who, being by me duly sworn, did depose and say that they reside at [address], that they are [title] of [corporation], the corporation described in and which executed the above instrument; that they know the seal of said corporation; that the seal affixed to such instrument is such corporate seal; that it was so affixed by order of the Board of Directors of said corporation, and that they signed their name thereto by like order.
[Signature of Notary Public]
SUBPART I
Use and Management of Containers
261.170. Applicability.
This subpart applies to hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at section 261.4(a)(27) and stored in containers.
261.171. Condition of containers.
If a container holding hazardous secondary material is not in good condition (e.g., severe rusting, apparent structural defects) or if it begins to leak, the hazardous secondary material must be transferred from this container to a container that is in good condition or managed in some other way that complies with the requirements of this part.
261.172. Compatibility of hazardous secondary materials with containers.
The container must be made of or lined with materials which will not react with, and are otherwise compatible with, the hazardous secondary material to be stored, so that the ability of the container to contain the material is not impaired.
261.173. Management of containers.
IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the Principal and Surety(ies) have executed this Bond and have affixed their seals on the date set forth above.
The persons whose signatures appear below hereby certify that they are authorized to execute this surety bond on behalf of the Principal and Surety(ies) and that the wording of this surety bond is identical to the wording specified in section 261.151 Appendix K, as such regulations were constituted on the date this bond was executed.
PRINCIPAL
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s)]
[Title(s)]
[Corporate Seal]
CORPORATE SURETY[IES]
[Name and address]
State of incorporation:
Liability Limit: $
[Signature(s)]
[Name(s) and title(s)]
[Corporate seal]
[For every co-surety, provide signature(s), corporate seal, and other information in the same manner as for Surety above.]
Bond premium: $
Appendix L-1
SOUTH CAROLINA DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES BUREAU OF LAND AND WASTE MANAGEMENT
Trust Agreement
Trust Agreement, the “Agreement,” entered into as of [date] by and between [name of the owner or operator] a [name of state] [insert “corporation,” “partnership,” “association,” or “proprietorship”], the “Grantor,” and [name of corporate trustee], [insert, “incorporated in the state of _____” or “a national bank”], the “trustee.”
WHEREAS, the South Carolina Department of Environmental Services, hereafter referred to as the “Department,” an agency of South Carolina, has established certain regulations applicable to the Grantor, requiring that an owner or operator must demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden accidental and/or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities.
WHEREAS, the Grantor has elected to establish a trust to assure all or part of such financial responsibility for the facilities identified herein.
WHEREAS, the Grantor, acting through its duly authorized officers, has selected the Trustee to be the trustee under this agreement, and the Trustee is willing to act as trustee.
NOW, THEREFORE, the Grantor and the Trustee agree as follows:
Section 1. Definitions. As used in this Agreement:
(b) A container holding hazardous secondary material must not be opened, handled, or stored in a manner which may rupture the container or cause it to leak.
261.175. Containment.
(b) A containment system must be designed and operated as follows:
(5) Spilled or leaked material and accumulated precipitation must be removed from the sump or collection area in as timely a manner as is necessary to prevent overflow of the collection system.
261.176. Special requirements for ignitable or reactive hazardous secondary material.
Containers holding ignitable or reactive hazardous secondary material must be located at least fifteen (15) meters (50 feet) from the facility’s property line.
261.177. Special requirements for incompatible materials.
(c) A storage container holding a hazardous secondary material that is incompatible with any other materials stored nearby must be separated from the other materials or protected from them by means of a dike, berm, wall, or other device.
261.179. Air emission standards.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall manage all hazardous secondary material placed in a container in accordance with the applicable requirements of R.61-79.261 subparts AA, BB, and CC.
SUBPART J
Tank Systems
261.190. Applicability.
(b) Tank systems, including sumps, as defined in section 260.10, that serve as part of a secondary containment system to collect or contain releases of hazardous secondary materials are exempted from the requirements in section 261.193(a).
261.191. Assessment of existing tank system’s integrity.
(b) This assessment must determine that the tank system is adequately designed and has sufficient structural strength and compatibility with the material(s) to be stored or treated, to ensure that it will not collapse, rupture, or fail. At a minimum, this assessment must consider the following:
(5) Results of a leak test, internal inspection, or other tank integrity examination such that:
(ii) For other than non-enterable underground tanks and for ancillary equipment, this assessment must include either a leak test, as described above, or other integrity examination that is certified by a qualified Professional Engineer that addresses cracks, leaks, corrosion, and erosion.
Note to paragraph (b)(5)(ii): The practices described in the American Petroleum Institute (API) Publication, Guide for Inspection of Refinery Equipment, Chapter XIII, “Atmospheric and Low-Pressure Storage Tanks,” 4th edition, 1981, may be used, where applicable, as guidelines in conducting other than a leak test.
(c) If, as a result of the assessment conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, a tank system is found to be leaking or unfit for use, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must comply with the requirements of section 261.196.
261.192. Reserved.
261.193. Containment and detection of releases.
(a) Secondary containment systems must be:
(2) Capable of detecting and collecting releases and accumulated liquids until the collected material is removed.
Note to paragraph (a): If the collected material is a hazardous waste under R.61-79.261, it is subject to management as a hazardous waste in accordance with all applicable requirements of R.61-79.262 through 265, 266, and 268. If the collected material is discharged through a point source to waters of the United States, it is subject to the requirements of sections 301, 304, and 402 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If discharged to a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW), it is subject to the requirements of section 307 of the Clean Water Act, as amended. If the collected material is released to the environment, it may be subject to the reporting requirements of 40 CFR part 302.
(b) To meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, secondary containment systems must be at a minimum:
(c) Secondary containment for tanks must include one (1) or more of the following devices:
(d) In addition to the requirements of paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, secondary containment systems must satisfy the following requirements:
(1) External liner systems must be:
(ii) Designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of precipitation into the secondary containment system unless the collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to contain precipitation from a twenty-five-year, twenty-four-hour rainfall event.
(iii) Free of cracks or gaps; and
(2) Vault systems must be:
(ii) Designed or operated to prevent run-on or infiltration of precipitation into the secondary containment system unless the collection system has sufficient excess capacity to contain run-on or infiltration. Such additional capacity must be sufficient to contain precipitation from a twenty-five-year, twenty-four-hour rainfall event;
(iii) Constructed with chemical-resistant water stops in place at all joints (if any);
(3) Double-walled tanks must be:
(ii) Protected, if constructed of metal, from both corrosion of the primary tank interior and of the external surface of the outer shell; and
(iii) Provided with a built-in continuous leak detection system capable of detecting a release within twenty-four (24) hours, or at the earliest practicable time.
Note to paragraph (d)(3): The provisions outlined in the Steel Tank Institute’s (STI) “Standard for Dual Wall Underground Steel Storage Tanks” may be used as guidelines for aspects of the design of underground steel double-walled tanks.
(f) Ancillary equipment must be provided with secondary containment (e.g., trench, jacketing, double-walled piping) that meets the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section except for:
(4) Pressurized aboveground piping systems with automatic shut-off devices (e.g., excess flow check valves, flow metering shutdown devices, loss of pressure actuated shut-off devices) that are visually inspected for leaks on a daily basis.
261.194. General operating requirements.
(b) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must use appropriate controls and practices to prevent spills and overflows from tank or containment systems. These include at a minimum:
(c) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must comply with the requirements of section 261.196 if a leak or spill occurs in the tank system.
261.195. Reserved.
261.196. Response to leaks or spills and disposition of leaking or unfit-for-use tank systems.
A tank system or secondary containment system from which there has been a leak or spill, or which is unfit for use, must be removed from service immediately, and the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must satisfy the following requirements:
(b) Removal of material from tank system or secondary containment system.
(c) Containment of visible releases to the environment. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must immediately conduct a visual inspection of the release and, based upon that inspection:
(d) Notifications, reports.
(2) A leak or spill of hazardous secondary material is exempted from the requirements of this paragraph if it is:
(3) Within thirty (30) days of detection of a release to the environment, a report containing the following information must be submitted to the Department:
(ii) Characteristics of the surrounding soil (soil composition, geology, hydrogeology, climate);
(iii) Results of any monitoring or sampling conducted in connection with the release (if available). If sampling or monitoring data relating to the release are not available within thirty (30) days, these data must be submitted to the Department as soon as they become available.
(e) Provision of secondary containment, repair, or closure.
(f) Certification of major repairs. If the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material has repaired a tank system in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, and the repair has been extensive (e.g., installation of an internal liner; repair of a ruptured primary containment or secondary containment vessel), the tank system must not be returned to service unless the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material has obtained a certification by a qualified Professional Engineer that the repaired system is capable of handling hazardous secondary materials without release for the intended life of the system. This certification must be kept on file at the facility and maintained until closure of the facility.
Note 1 to section 261.196: EPA may, on the basis of any information received that there is or has been a release of hazardous secondary material or hazardous constituents into the environment, issue an order under RCRA section 7003(a) requiring corrective action or such other response as deemed necessary to protect human health or the environment.
Note 2 to section 261.196: 40 CFR part 302 may require the owner or operator to notify the National Response Center of certain releases.
261.197. Termination of remanufacturing exclusion.
Hazardous secondary material stored in units more than ninety (90) days after the unit ceases to operate under the remanufacturing exclusion at section 261.4(a)(27) or otherwise ceases to be operated for manufacturing, or for storage of a product or a raw material, then becomes subject to regulation as hazardous waste under R.61-79.124, 261 through 266, 268, and 270, as applicable.
261.198. Special requirements for ignitable or reactive materials.
(b) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary material which is ignitable or reactive must store or treat the hazardous secondary material in a tank that is in compliance with the requirements for the maintenance of protective distances between the material management area and any public ways, streets, alleys, or an adjoining property line that can be built upon as required in Tables 2-1 through 2-6 of the National Fire Protection Association’s “Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code,” (1977 or 1981), (incorporated by reference, see section 260.11).
261.199. Special requirements for incompatible materials.
(b) Hazardous secondary material must not be placed in a tank-system that has not been decontaminated and that previously held an incompatible material.
261.200. Air emission standards.
The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall manage all hazardous secondary material placed in a tank in accordance with the applicable requirements of R.61-79.261 subparts AA, BB, and CC.
SUBPART K
[Reserved]
SUBPART L
[Reserved]
SUBPART M
Emergency Preparedness and Response for Management of Excluded Hazardous Secondary Materials
261.400. Applicability.
The requirements of this subpart apply to those areas of an entity managing hazardous secondary materials excluded under section 261.4(a)(23) and/or (24) where hazardous secondary materials are generated or accumulated on site.
(b) A generator of hazardous secondary material, or an intermediate or reclamation facility that accumulates more than six thousand (6000) kilograms of hazardous secondary material at any time must comply with sections 261.410 and 261.420.
261.410. Preparedness and prevention.
(b) Required equipment. All facilities generating or accumulating hazardous secondary material must be equipped with the following, unless none of the hazards posed by hazardous secondary material handled at the facility could require a particular kind of equipment specified below:
(d) Access to communications or alarm system.
(f) Arrangements with local authorities.
(1) The hazardous secondary material generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility must attempt to make the following arrangements, as appropriate for the type of waste handled at the facility and the potential need for the services of these organizations:
(ii) Where more than one (1) police and fire department might respond to an emergency, agreements designating primary emergency authority to a specific police and a specific fire department, and agreements with any others to provide support to the primary emergency authority;
(iii) Agreements with state emergency response teams, emergency response contractors, and equipment suppliers; and
(2) Where state or local authorities decline to enter into such arrangements, the hazardous secondary material generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility must document the refusal in the operating record.
261.411. Emergency procedures for facilities generating or accumulating 6000 kilograms or less of hazardous secondary material.
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility that generates or accumulates six thousand (6000) kilograms or less of hazardous secondary material must comply with the following requirements:
(b) The generator or intermediate or reclamation facility must post the following information next to the telephone:
(d) The emergency coordinator or his designee must respond to any emergencies that arise. The applicable responses are as follows:
(3) In the event of a fire, explosion, or other release which could threaten human health outside the facility or when the generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water, the generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility must immediately notify the National Response Center (using their twenty-four-hour toll free number 800/424-8802). The report must include the following information:
(ii) Date, time, and type of incident (e.g., spill or fire);
(iii) Quantity and type of hazardous waste involved in the incident;
(v) Estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials, if any.
261.420. Contingency planning and emergency procedures for facilities generating or accumulating more than 6000 kilograms of hazardous secondary material.
A generator or an intermediate or reclamation facility that generates or accumulates more than six thousand (6000) kilograms of hazardous secondary material must comply with the following requirements:
(a) Purpose and implementation of contingency plan.
(b) Content of contingency plan.
(c) Copies of contingency plan. A copy of the contingency plan and all revisions to the plan must be:
(d) Amendment of contingency plan. The contingency plan must be reviewed, and immediately amended, if necessary, whenever:
(f) Emergency procedures.
(1) Whenever there is an imminent or actual emergency situation, the emergency coordinator (or the designee when the emergency coordinator is on call) must immediately:
(4) If the emergency coordinator determines that the facility has had a release, fire, or explosion which could threaten human health, or the environment, outside the facility, the findings must be reported as follows:
(ii) The government official designated as the on-scene coordinator for that geographical area or the National Response Center (using their twenty-four (24)-hour toll free number 800/424-8802) must be immediately notified. The report must include:
(8) The emergency coordinator must ensure that, in the affected area(s) of the facility:
(9) The hazardous secondary material generator must note in the operating record the time, date, and details of any incident that requires implementing the contingency plan. Within fifteen (15) days after the incident, a written report must be submitted on the incident to the Department. The report must include:
(ii) Name, address, and telephone number of the facility;
(iii) Date, time, and type of incident (e.g., fire, explosion);
(vi) An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment, where this is applicable; and
(vii) Estimated quantity and disposition of recovered material that resulted from the incident.
(g) Personnel training. All employees must be thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling and emergency procedures relevant to their responsibilities during normal facility operations and emergencies.
SUBPART N-Z
[Reserved]
SUBPART AA
Air Emission Standards for Process Vents
261.1030. Applicability.
The regulations in this subpart apply to process vents associated with distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or stream stripping operations that manage hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at section 261.4(a)(27) with concentrations of at least ten (10) parts per million by weight (ppmw), unless the process vents are equipped with operating air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of an applicable Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63.
261.1031. Definitions.
As used in this subpart, all terms not defined herein shall have the meaning given them in the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act and R.61-79.260 through 266.
“Air stripping operation” is a desorption operation employed to transfer one (1) or more volatile components from a liquid mixture into a gas (air) either with or without the application of heat to the liquid. Packed towers, spray towers, and bubble-cap, sieve, or valve-type plate towers are among the process configurations used for contacting the air and a liquid.
“Bottoms receiver” means a container or tank used to receive and collect the heavier bottoms fractions of the distillation feed stream that remain in the liquid phase.
“Closed-vent system” means a system that is not open to the atmosphere and that is composed of piping, connections, and, if necessary, flow-inducing devices that transport gas or vapor from a piece or pieces of equipment to a control device.
“Condenser” means a heat-transfer device that reduces a thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to its liquid phase.
“Connector” means flanged, screwed, welded, or other joined fittings used to connect two (2) pipelines or a pipeline and a piece of equipment. For the purposes of reporting and recordkeeping, connector means flanged fittings that are not covered by insulation or other materials that prevent location of the fittings.
“Continuous recorder” means a data-recording device recording an instantaneous data value at least once every fifteen (15) minutes.
“Control device” means an enclosed combustion device, vapor recovery system, or flare. Any device the primary function of which is the recovery or capture of solvents or other organics for use, reuse, or sale (e.g., a primary condenser on a solvent recovery unit) is not a control device.
“Control device shutdown” means the cessation of operation of a control device for any purpose.
“Distillate receiver” means a container or tank used to receive and collect liquid material (condensed) from the overhead condenser of a distillation unit and from which the condensed liquid is pumped to larger storage tanks or other process units.
“Distillation operation” means an operation, either batch or continuous, separating one (1) or more feed stream(s) into two (2) or more exit streams, each exit stream having component concentrations different from those in the feed stream(s). The separation is achieved by the redistribution of the components between the liquid and vapor phase as they approach equilibrium within the distillation unit.
“Double block and bleed system” means two (2) block valves connected in series with a bleed valve or line that can vent the line between the two (2) block valves.
“Equipment” means each valve, pump, compressor, pressure relief device, sampling connection system, open-ended valve or line, or flange or other connector, and any control devices or systems required by this subpart.
“Flame zone” means the portion of the combustion chamber in a boiler occupied by the flame envelope.
“Flow indicator” means a device that indicates whether gas flow is present in a vent stream.
“First attempt at repair” means to take rapid action for the purpose of stopping or reducing leakage of organic material to the atmosphere using best practices.
“Fractionation operation” means a distillation operation or method used to separate a mixture of several volatile components of different boiling points in successive stages, each stage removing from the mixture some proportion of one (1) of the components.
“Hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown” means a work practice or operational procedure that stops operation of a hazardous secondary material management unit or part of a hazardous secondary material management unit. An unscheduled work practice or operational procedure that stops operation of a hazardous secondary material management unit or part of a hazardous secondary material management unit for less than twenty-four (24) hours is not a hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown. The use of spare equipment and technically feasible bypassing of equipment without stopping operation are not hazardous secondary material management unit shutdowns.
“Hot well” means a container for collecting condensate as in a steam condenser serving a vacuum-jet or steam-jet ejector.
“In gas/vapor service” means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a hazardous secondary material stream that is in the gaseous state at operating conditions.
“In heavy liquid service” means that the piece of equipment is not in gas/vapor service or in light liquid service.
“In light liquid service” means that the piece of equipment contains or contacts a material stream where the vapor pressure of one (1) or more of the organic components in the stream is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at twenty degrees Celsius (20°C), the total concentration of the pure organic components having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at twenty degrees Celsius (20°C) is equal to or greater than twenty (20) percent by weight, and the fluid is a liquid at operating conditions.
“In situ sampling systems” means nonextractive samplers or in-line samplers.
“In vacuum service” means that equipment is operating at an internal pressure that is at least five (5) kilopascals (kPa) below ambient pressure.
“Malfunction” means any sudden failure of a control device or a hazardous secondary material management unit, or failure of a hazardous secondary material management unit to operate in a normal or usual manner, so that organic emissions are increased.
“Open-ended valve or line” means any valve, except pressure relief valves, having one (1) side of the valve seat in contact with hazardous secondary material and one (1) side open to the atmosphere, either directly or through open piping.
“Pressure release” means the emission of materials resulting from the system pressure being greater than the set pressure of the pressure relief device.
“Process heater” means a device that transfers heat liberated by burning fuel to fluids contained in tubes, including all fluids except water that are heated to produce steam.
“Process vent” means any open-ended pipe or stack that is vented to the atmosphere either directly, through a vacuum-producing system, or through a tank (e.g., distillate receiver, condenser, bottoms receiver, surge control tank, separator tank, or hot well) associated with hazardous secondary material distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operations.
“Repaired” means that equipment is adjusted, or otherwise altered, to eliminate a leak.
“Sampling connection system” means an assembly of equipment within a process or material management unit used during periods of representative operation to take samples of the process or material fluid. Equipment used to take non-routine grab samples is not considered a sampling connection system.
“Sensor” means a device that measures a physical quantity or the change in a physical quantity, such as temperature, pressure, flow rate, pH, or liquid level.
“Separator tank” means a device used for separation of two (2) immiscible liquids.
“Solvent extraction operation” means an operation or method of separation in which a solid or solution is contacted with a liquid solvent (the two being mutually insoluble) to preferentially dissolve and transfer one (1) or more components into the solvent.
“Startup” means the setting in operation of a hazardous secondary material management unit or control device for any purpose.
“Steam stripping operation” means a distillation operation in which vaporization of the volatile constituents of a liquid mixture takes place by the introduction of steam directly into the charge.
“Surge control tank” means a large-sized pipe or storage reservoir sufficient to contain the surging liquid discharge of the process tank to which it is connected.
“Thin-film evaporation operation” means a distillation operation that employs a heating surface consisting of a large diameter tube that may be either straight or tapered, horizontal or vertical. Liquid is spread on the tube wall by a rotating assembly of blades that maintain a close clearance from the wall or actually ride on the film of liquid on the wall.
“Vapor incinerator” means any enclosed combustion device that is used for destroying organic compounds and does not extract energy in the form of steam or process heat.
“Vented” means discharged through an opening, typically an open-ended pipe or stack, allowing the passage of a stream of liquids, gases, or fumes into the atmosphere. The passage of liquids, gases, or fumes is caused by mechanical means such as compressors or vacuum-producing systems or by process-related means such as evaporation produced by heating and not caused by tank loading and unloading (working losses) or by natural means such as diurnal temperature changes.
261.1032. Standards: Process vents.
(a) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary materials in hazardous secondary material management units with process vents associated with distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operations managing hazardous secondary material with organic concentrations of at least ten (10) parts per million by weight (ppmw) shall either:
(d) When a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material and the Department do not agree on determinations of vent emissions and/or emission reductions or total organic compound concentrations achieved by add-on control devices based on engineering calculations, the procedures in section 261.1034(c) shall be used to resolve the disagreement.
261.1033. Standards: Closed-vent systems and control devices.
(a)(1) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary materials in hazardous secondary material management units using closed-vent systems and control devices used to comply with provisions of this part shall comply with the provisions of this section.
(c) An enclosed combustion device (e.g., a vapor incinerator, boiler, or process heater) shall be designed and operated to reduce the organic emissions vented to it by ninety-five (95) weight percent or greater; to achieve a total organic compound concentration of twenty (20) ppmv, expressed as the sum of the actual compounds, not carbon equivalents, on a dry basis corrected to three (3) percent oxygen; or to provide a minimum residence time of 0.50 seconds at a minimum temperature of seven hundred and sixty degrees Celsius (760°C). If a boiler or process heater is used as the control device, then the vent stream shall be introduced into the flame zone of the boiler or process heater.
(3) A flare shall be used only if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is 11.2 megajoules (MJ)/standard cubic meter (scm) (300 British thermal units (Btu)/standard cubic foot (scf)) or greater if the flare is steam-assisted or air-assisted; or if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is 7.45 MJ/scm (200 Btu/scf) or greater if the flare is nonassisted. The net heating value of the gas being combusted shall be determined by the methods specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(ii) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, equal to or greater than 18.3 m/s (60 ft/s) but less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed if the net heating value of the gas being combusted is greater than 37.3 MJ/scm (1000 Btu/scf).
(iii) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare designed for and operated with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, less than the velocity, Vmax, as determined by the method specified in paragraph (e)(4) of this section and less than 122 m/s (400 ft/s) is allowed.
(4)(i) A steam-assisted or nonassisted flare shall be designed for and operated with an exit velocity, as determined by the methods specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, less than 18.3 meters/second (60 ft/s), except as provided in paragraphs (d)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
(6) A flare used to comply with this section shall be steam-assisted, air-assisted, or nonassisted.
(e)(1) Reference Method 22 in 40 CFR part 60 shall be used to determine the compliance of a flare with the visible emission provisions of this subpart. The observation period is two (2) hours and shall be used according to Method 22.
(2) The net heating value of the gas being combusted in a flare shall be calculated using the following equation:
[V0380159.TIF]
[V0380159]
Where:
HT = Net heating value of the sample, MJ/scm; where the net enthalpy per mole of offgas is based on combustion at twenty-five degrees Celsius (25°C) and 760 millimeters of Mercury (mm Hg), but the standard temperature for determining the volume corresponding to one (1) mol is 20°C;
K = constant, 1.74 × 10-7 (1/ppm) (g mol/scm) (MJ/kcal) where standard temperature for (g mol/scm) is 20°C;
Ci = Concentration of sample component “i” in ppm on a wet basis, as measured for organics by Reference Method 18 in 40 CFR part 60 and measured for hydrogen and carbon monoxide by ASTM D 1946-82 (incorporated by reference as specified in section 260.11); and
Hi = Net heat of combustion of sample component “i”, kcal/9 mol at 25°C and 760 mm Hg. The heats of combustion may be determined using ASTM D 2382-83 (incorporated by reference as specified in section 260.11) if published values are not available or cannot be calculated.
(4) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, Vmax, for a flare complying with paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section shall be determined by the following equation:
Log10(Vmax) = (HT + 28.8)/31.7
Where:
28.8 = constant,
31.7 = constant,
HT = The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(5) The maximum allowed velocity in m/s, Vmax, for an air-assisted flare shall be determined by the following equation:
Vmax = 8.706 + 0.7084 (HT)
Where:
8.706 = constant,
0.7084 = constant,
HT = The net heating value as determined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
(d)(1) A flare shall be designed for and operated with no visible emissions as determined by the methods specified in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, except for periods not to exceed a total of five (5) minutes during any two (2) consecutive hours.
(f) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall monitor and inspect each control device required to comply with this section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the control device by implementing the following requirements:
(2) Install, calibrate, maintain, and operate according to the manufacturer’s specifications a device to continuously monitor control device operation as specified below:
(ii) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, a temperature monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder. The device shall be capable of monitoring temperature at two locations and have an accuracy of ±1 (one) percent of the temperature being monitored in degrees Celsius (°C) or ±0.5 degrees Celsius (°C), whichever is greater. One temperature sensor shall be installed in the vent stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed inlet and a second temperature sensor shall be installed in the vent stream at the nearest feasible point to the catalyst bed outlet.
(iii) For a flare, a heat sensing monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder that indicates the continuous ignition of the pilot flame.
(vi) For a condenser, either:
(B) A temperature monitoring device equipped with a continuous recorder. The device shall be capable of monitoring temperature with an accuracy of ±1 (one) percent of the temperature being monitored in degrees Celsius (°C) or ±0.5 degrees Celsius (°C), whichever is greater. The temperature sensor shall be installed at a location in the exhaust vent stream from the condenser exit (i.e., product side).
(vii) For a carbon adsorption system that regenerates the carbon bed directly in the control device such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber, either:
(h) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats hazardous secondary material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a carbon adsorption system such as a carbon canister that does not regenerate the carbon bed directly onsite in the control device shall replace the existing carbon in the control device with fresh carbon on a regular basis by using one of the following procedures:
(k) A closed-vent system shall meet either of the following design requirements:
(l) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall monitor and inspect each closed-vent system required to comply with this section to ensure proper operation and maintenance of the closed-vent system by implementing the following requirements:
(1) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with paragraph (k)(1) of this section shall be inspected and monitored in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) After initial leak detection monitoring required in paragraph (l)(1)(i) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect and monitor the closed-vent system as follows:
(B) Closed-vent system components or connections other than those specified in paragraph (l)(1)(ii)(A) of this section shall be monitored annually and at other times as requested by the Department, except as provided for in paragraph (o) of this section, using the procedures specified in section 261.1034(b) to demonstrate that the components or connections operate with no detectable emissions.
(iii) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair the defect or leak in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(3) of this section.
(2) Each closed-vent system that is used to comply with paragraph (k)(2) of this section shall be inspected and monitored in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform an initial inspection of the closed-vent system on or before the date that the system becomes subject to this section. Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform the inspections at least once every year.
(iii) In the event that a defect or leak is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (l)(3) of this section.
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair all detected defects as follows:
(ii) A first attempt at repair shall be made no later than five (5) days after the emission is detected.
(iii) Delay of repair of a closed-vent system for which leaks have been detected is allowed if the repair is technically infeasible without a process unit shutdown, or if the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material determines that emissions resulting from immediate repair would be greater than the fugitive emissions likely to result from delay of repair. Repair of such equipment shall be completed by the end of the next process unit shutdown.
(n) The owner or operator using a carbon adsorption system to control air pollutant emissions shall document that all carbon that is a hazardous waste and that is removed from the control device is managed in one of the following manners, regardless of the average volatile organic concentration of the carbon:
(1) Regenerated or reactivated in a thermal treatment unit that meets one of the following:
(ii) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in accordance with the applicable requirements of subparts AA and CC of either R.61-79.261 or 265; or
(iii) The unit is equipped with and operating air emission controls in accordance with a national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants under 40 CFR part 61 or 40 CFR part 63.
(2) Incinerated in a hazardous waste incinerator for which the owner or operator either:
(3) Burned in a boiler or industrial furnace for which the owner or operator either:
(o) Any components of a closed-vent system that are designated, as described in section 261.1035(c)(9) of this subpart, as unsafe to monitor are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (l)(1)(ii)(B) of this section if:
(2) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in a hazardous secondary material management unit using a closed-vent system adheres to a written plan that requires monitoring the closed-vent system components using the procedure specified in paragraph (l)(1)(ii)(B) of this section as frequently as practicable during safe-to-monitor times.
261.1034. Test methods and procedures.
(b) When a closed-vent system is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as required in section 261.1033(l) of this subpart, the test shall comply with the following requirements:
(4) Calibration gases shall be:
(c) Performance tests to determine compliance with section 261.1032(a) and with the total organic compound concentration limit of section 261.1033(c) shall comply with the following:
(1) Performance tests to determine total organic compound concentrations and mass flow rates entering and exiting control devices shall be conducted and data reduced in accordance with the following reference methods and calculation procedures:
(ii) Method 18 or Method 25A in 40 CFR part 60, appendix A, for organic content. If Method 25A is used, the organic HAP used as the calibration gas must be the single organic HAP representing the largest percent by volume of the emissions. The use of Method 25A is acceptable if the response from the high-level calibration gas is at least twenty (20) times the standard deviation of the response from the zero calibration gas when the instrument is zeroed on the most sensitive scale.
(iii) Each performance test shall consist of three separate runs; each run conducted for at least one (1) hour under the conditions that exist when the hazardous secondary material management unit is operating at the highest load or capacity level reasonably expected to occur. For the purpose of determining total organic compound concentrations and mass flow rates, the average of results of all runs shall apply. The average shall be computed on a time-weighted basis.
(iv) Total organic mass flow rates shall be determined by the following equation:
(A) For sources utilizing Method 18.
[V0380160.TIF]
[V0380160]
Where:
Eh= Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q2sd= Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
n = Number of organic compounds in the vent gas;
Ci= Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, of compound “i” in the vent gas, as determined by Method 18;
MWi= Molecular weight of organic compound “i” in the vent gas, kg/kg-mol;
0.0416 = Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6 = Conversion from ppm.
(B) For sources utilizing Method 25A.
Eh= (Q)(C)(MW)(0.0416)(10-6)
Where:
Eh= Total organic mass flow rate, kg/h;
Q = Volumetric flow rate of gases entering or exiting control device, as determined by Method 2, dscm/h;
C = Organic concentration in ppm, dry basis, as determined by Method 25A;
MW = Molecular weight of propane, 44;
0.0416 = Conversion factor for molar volume, kg-mol/m3 (@293 K and 760 mm Hg);
10-6 = Conversion from ppm.
(v) The annual total organic emission rate shall be determined by the following equation:
EA = (Eh)(H)
Where:
EA = Total organic mass emission rate, kg/y;
Eh = Total organic mass flow rate for the process vent, kg/h;
H = Total annual hours of operations for the affected unit, h.
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material at an affected facility shall provide, or cause to be provided, performance testing facilities as follows:
(ii) Safe sampling platform(s).
(iii) Safe access to sampling platform(s).
(d) To show that a process vent associated with a hazardous secondary material distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operation is not subject to the requirements of this subpart, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must make an initial determination that the time-weighted, annual average total organic concentration of the material managed by the hazardous secondary material management unit is less than ten (10) ppmw using one of the following two (2) methods:
(1) Direct measurement of the organic concentration of the material using the following procedures:
(ii) For material generated onsite, the grab samples must be collected at a point before the material is exposed to the atmosphere such as in an enclosed pipe or other closed system that is used to transfer the material after generation to the first affected distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operation. For material generated offsite, the grab samples must be collected at the inlet to the first material management unit that receives the material provided the material has been transferred to the facility in a closed system such as a tank truck and the material is not diluted or mixed with other material.
(iii) Each sample shall be analyzed and the total organic concentration of the sample shall be computed using Method 9060A (incorporated by reference under section 260.11) of “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, or analyzed for its individual organic constituents.
(e) The determination that distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operations manage hazardous secondary materials with time-weighted, annual average total organic concentrations less than ten (10) ppmw shall be made as follows:
(f) When a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material and the Department do not agree on whether a distillation, fractionation, thin-film evaporation, solvent extraction, or air or steam stripping operation manages a hazardous secondary material with organic concentrations of at least ten (10) ppmw based on knowledge of the material, the dispute may be resolved by using direct measurement as specified at paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
261.1035. Recordkeeping requirements.
(a)(1) Each remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material subject to the provisions of this subpart shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this section.
(b) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must keep the following records on-site:
(2) Up-to-date documentation of compliance with the process vent standards in section 261.1032, including:
(3) Where a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material chooses to use test data to determine the organic removal efficiency or total organic compound concentration achieved by the control device, a performance test plan must be developed and include:
(ii) A detailed engineering description of the closed-vent system and control device including:
(E) Construction materials.
(iii) A detailed description of sampling and monitoring procedures, including sampling and monitoring locations in the system, the equipment to be used, sampling and monitoring frequency, and planned analytical procedures for sample analysis.
(4) Documentation of compliance with section 261.1033 shall include the following information:
(ii) Records, including the dates, of each compliance test required by section 261.1033(k).
(iii) If engineering calculations are used, a design analysis, specifications, drawings, schematics, and piping and instrumentation diagrams based on the appropriate sections of “APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions” (incorporated by reference as specified in section 260.11) or other engineering texts acceptable to the Department that present basic control device design information. Documentation provided by the control device manufacturer or vendor that describes the control device design in accordance with paragraphs (b)(4)(iii)(A) through (G) of this section may be used to comply with this requirement. The design analysis shall address the vent stream characteristics and control device operation parameters as specified below.
(c) Design documentation and monitoring, operating, and inspection information for each closed-vent system and control device required to comply with the provisions of this part shall be recorded and kept up-to-date at the facility. The information shall include:
(4) Date, time, and duration of each period that occurs while the control device is operating when any monitored parameter exceeds the value established in the control device design analysis as specified below:
(ii) For a thermal vapor incinerator designed to operate with an organic emission reduction efficiency of ninety-five (95) weight percent or greater, period when the combustion zone temperature is more than twenty-eight degrees Celsius (28°C) below the design average combustion zone temperature established as a requirement of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(A) of this section.
(iii) For a catalytic vapor incinerator, period when:
(iv) For a boiler or process heater, period when:
(vi) For a condenser that complies with section 261.1033(f)(2)(vi)(A), period when the organic compound concentration level or readings of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the condenser are more than twenty (20) percent greater than the design outlet organic compound concentration level established as a requirement of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
(B) Temperature of the coolant fluid exiting the condenser is more than six degrees Celsius (6°C) above the design average coolant fluid temperature at the condenser outlet established as a requirement of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(E) of this section.
(viii) For a carbon adsorption system such as a fixed-bed carbon adsorber that regenerates the carbon bed directly on-site in the control device and complies with section 261.1033(f)(2)(vii)(A), period when the organic compound concentration level or readings of organic compounds in the exhaust vent stream from the carbon bed are more than twenty (20) percent greater than the design exhaust vent stream organic compound concentration level established as a requirement of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(F) of this section.
(vii) For a condenser that complies with section 261.1033(f)(2)(vi)(B), period when:
(7) For a carbon adsorption system operated subject to requirements specified in section 261.1033(h)(1), a log that records:
(10) When each leak is detected as specified in section 261.1033(l), the following information shall be recorded:
(ii) The date the leak was detected and the date of first attempt to repair the leak.
(iii) The date of successful repair of the leak.
(v) “Repair delayed” and the reason for the delay if a leak is not repaired within fifteen (15) days after discovery of the leak.
(f) Up-to-date information and data used to determine whether or not a process vent is subject to the requirements in section 261.1032, including supporting documentation as required by section 261.1034(d)(2) when application of the knowledge of the nature of the hazardous secondary material stream or the process by which it was produced is used, shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility.
(2) Each pump in light liquid service shall be checked by visual inspection each calendar week for indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal.
(b)(1) If an instrument reading of ten thousand (10,000) parts per million (ppm) or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
(2) If there are indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal, a leak is detected.
(c)(1) When a leak is detected, it shall be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later than fifteen (15) calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in section 261.1059.
261.1036. [Reserved]
261.1037. [Reserved]
261.1038. [Reserved]
261.1039. [Reserved]
261.1040. [Reserved]
261.1041. [Reserved]
261.1042. [Reserved]
261.1043. [Reserved]
261.1044. [Reserved]
261.1045. [Reserved]
261.1046. [Reserved]
261.1047. [Reserved]
261.1048. [Reserved]
261.1049. [Reserved]
SUBPART BB
Air Emission Standards for Equipment Leaks
261.1050. Applicability.
The regulations in this subpart apply to equipment that contains hazardous secondary materials excluded under the remanufacturing exclusion at section 261.4(a)(27), unless the equipment operations are subject to the requirements of an applicable Clean Air Act regulation codified under 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63.
261.1051. Definitions.
As used in this subpart, all terms shall have the meaning given them in section 261.1031, the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act and R.61-79.260 through 266.
261.1052. Standards: Pumps in light liquid service.
(a)(1) Each pump in light liquid service shall be monitored monthly to detect leaks by the methods specified in section 261.1063(b), except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section.
(d) Each pump equipped with a dual mechanical seal system that includes a barrier fluid system is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, provided the following requirements are met:
(1) Each dual mechanical seal system must be:
(ii) Equipped with a barrier fluid degassing reservoir that is connected by a closed-vent system to a control device that complies with the requirements of section 261.1060, or
(iii) Equipped with a system that purges the barrier fluid into a hazardous secondary material stream with no detectable emissions to the atmosphere.
(4) Each pump must be checked by visual inspection, each calendar week, for indications of liquids dripping from the pump seals.
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must determine, based on design considerations and operating experience, a criterion that indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or both.
(6)(i) If there are indications of liquids dripping from the pump seal or the sensor indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or both based on the criterion determined in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, a leak is detected.
(ii) When a leak is detected, it shall be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later than fifteen (15) calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in section 261.1059.
(iii) A first attempt at repair (e.g., relapping the seal) shall be made no later than five (5) calendar days after each leak is detected.
(5)(i) Each sensor as described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section must be checked daily or be equipped with an audible alarm that must be checked monthly to ensure that it is functioning properly.
(e) Any pump that is designated, as described in section 261.1064(g)(2), for no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background, is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a), (c), and (d) of this section if the pump meets the following requirements:
(f) If any pump is equipped with a closed-vent system capable of capturing and transporting any leakage from the seal or seals to a control device that complies with the requirements of section 261.1060, it is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section.
261.1053. Standards: Compressors.
(b) Each compressor seal system as required in paragraph (a) of this section shall be:
(d) Each barrier fluid system as described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section shall be equipped with a sensor that will detect failure of the seal system, barrier fluid system, or both.
(e)(1) Each sensor as required in paragraph (d) of this section shall be checked daily or shall be equipped with an audible alarm that must be checked monthly to ensure that it is functioning properly unless the compressor is located within the boundary of an unmanned plant site, in which case the sensor must be checked daily.
(f) If the sensor indicates failure of the seal system, the barrier fluid system, or both based on the criterion determined under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a leak is detected.
(g)(1) When a leak is detected, it shall be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later than fifteen (15) calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in section 261.1059.
(i) Any compressor that is designated, as described in section 261.1064(g)(2), for no detectable emissions as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) through (h) of this section if the compressor:
(2) Is tested for compliance with paragraph (i)(1) of this section initially upon designation, annually, and at other times as requested by the Department.
261.1054. Standards: Pressure relief devices in gas/vapor service.
(a) Except during pressure releases, each pressure relief device in gas/vapor service shall be operated with no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background, as measured by the method specified in section 261.1063(c).
(b)(1) After each pressure release, the pressure relief device shall be returned to a condition of no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background, as soon as practicable, but no later than five (5) calendar days after each pressure release, except as provided in section 261.1059.
(c) Any pressure relief device that is equipped with a closed-vent system capable of capturing and transporting leakage from the pressure relief device to a control device as described in section 261.1060 is exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
261.1055. Standards: Sampling connection systems.
(b) Each closed-purge, closed-loop, or closed-vent system as required in paragraph (a) of this section shall meet one (1) of the following requirements:
(c) In-situ sampling systems and sampling systems without purges are exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
261.1056. Standards: Open-ended valves or lines.
(a)(1) Each open-ended valve or line shall be equipped with a cap, blind flange, plug, or a second valve.
(c) When a double block and bleed system is being used, the bleed valve or line may remain open during operations that require venting the line between the block valves but shall comply with paragraph (a) of this section at all other times.
261.1057. Standards: Valves in gas/vapor service or in light liquid service.
(b) If an instrument reading of ten thousand (10,000) ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
(2) If a leak is detected, the valve shall be monitored monthly until a leak is not detected for two (2) successive months,
(d)(1) When a leak is detected, it shall be repaired as soon as practicable, but no later than fifteen (15) calendar days after the leak is detected, except as provided in section 261.1059.
(c)(1) Any valve for which a leak is not detected for two successive months may be monitored the first month of every succeeding quarter, beginning with the next quarter, until a leak is detected.
(e) First attempts at repair include, but are not limited to, the following best practices where practicable:
(f) Any valve that is designated, as described in section 261.1064(g)(2), for no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background, is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if the valve:
(g) Any valve that is designated, as described in section 261.1064(h)(1), as an unsafe-to-monitor valve is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if:
(h) Any valve that is designated, as described in section 261.1064(h)(2), as a difficult-to-monitor valve is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if:
(3) The owner or operator of the valve follows a written plan that requires monitoring of the valve at least once per calendar year.
261.1058. Standards: Pumps and valves in heavy liquid service, pressure relief devices in light liquid or heavy liquid service, and flanges and other connectors.
(b) If an instrument reading of ten thousand (10,000) ppm or greater is measured, a leak is detected.
(c)(1) When a leak is detected, it shall be repaired as soon as practicable, but not later than fifteen (15) calendar days after it is detected, except as provided in section 261.1059.
(e) Any connector that is inaccessible or is ceramic or ceramic-lined (e.g., porcelain, glass, or glass-lined) is exempt from the monitoring requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and from the recordkeeping requirements of section 261.1064.
261.1059. Standards: Delay of repair.
(c) Delay of repair for valves will be allowed if:
(d) Delay of repair for pumps will be allowed if:
(e) Delay of repair beyond a hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown will be allowed for a valve if valve assembly replacement is necessary during the hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown, valve assembly supplies have been depleted, and valve assembly supplies had been sufficiently stocked before the supplies were depleted. Delay of repair beyond the next hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown will not be allowed unless the next hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown occurs sooner than six (6) months after the first hazardous secondary material management unit shutdown.
261.1060. Standards: Closed-vent systems and control devices.
(a) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in a hazardous secondary material management units using closed-vent systems and control devices subject to this subpart shall comply with the provisions of section 261.1033.
(4) Remanufacturers or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary materials at facilities and units that become newly subject to the requirements of this subpart after January 13, 2015, due to an action other than those described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, must comply with all applicable requirements immediately (i.e., must have control devices installed and operating on the date the facility or unit becomes subject to this subpart; the thirty (30)-month implementation schedule does not apply).
261.1061. Alternative standards for valves in gas/vapor service or in light liquid service: percentage of valves allowed to leak.
(b)(1) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material at an existing facility who cannot install a closed-vent system and control device to comply with the provisions of this subpart on the effective date that the facility becomes subject to the provisions of this subpart must prepare an implementation schedule that includes dates by which the closed-vent system and control device will be installed and in operation. The controls must be installed as soon as possible, but the implementation schedule may allow up to thirty (30) months after the effective date that the facility becomes subject to this subpart for installation and startup.
(b) The following requirements shall be met if a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material decides to comply with the alternative standard of allowing two (2) percent of valves to leak:
(c) Performance tests shall be conducted in the following manner:
(3) The leak percentage shall be determined by dividing the number of valves subject to the requirements in section 261.1057 for which leaks are detected by the total number of valves subject to the requirements in section 261.1057 within the hazardous secondary material management unit.
261.1062. Alternative standards for valves in gas/vapor service or in light liquid service: skip period leak detection and repair.
(a) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material subject to the requirements of section 261.1057 may elect for all valves within a hazardous secondary material management unit to comply with one (1) of the alternative work practices specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
(4) If the percentage of valves leaking is greater than two (2) percent, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall monitor monthly in compliance with the requirements in section 261.1057, but may again elect to use this section after meeting the requirements of section 261.1057(c)(1).
261.1063. Test methods and procedures.
(b)(1) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall comply with the requirements for valves, as described in section 261.1057, except as described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
(b) Leak detection monitoring, as required in sections 261.1052 through 261.1062, shall comply with the following requirements:
(4) Calibration gases shall be:
(c) When equipment is tested for compliance with no detectable emissions, as required in sections 261.1052(e), 261.1053(i), 261.1054, and 261.1057(f), the test shall comply with the following requirements:
(d) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material must determine, for each piece of equipment, whether the equipment contains or contacts a hazardous secondary material with organic concentration that equals or exceeds ten (10) percent by weight using the following:
(i) Performance tests to determine if a control device achieves ninety-five (95) weight percent organic emission reduction shall comply with the procedures of section 261.1034(c)(1) through (4).
261.1064. Recordkeeping requirements.
(a)(1) Each remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material subject to the provisions of this subpart shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this section.
(b) Remanufacturer’s and other person’s that store or treat the hazardous secondary material must record and keep the following information at the facility:
(1) For each piece of equipment to which R.61-79.261 subpart BB applies:
(ii) Approximate locations within the facility (e.g., identify the hazardous secondary material management unit on a facility plot plan).
(iii) Type of equipment (e.g., a pump or pipeline valve).
(c) When each leak is detected as specified in sections 261.1052, 261.1053, 261.1057, and 261.1058, the following requirements apply:
(d) When each leak is detected as specified in sections 261.1052, 261.1053, 261.1057, and 261.1058, the following information shall be recorded in an inspection log and shall be kept at the facility:
(g) The following information pertaining to all equipment subject to the requirements in sections 261.1052 through 261.1060 shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility:
(1) A list of identification numbers for equipment (except welded fittings) subject to the requirements of this subpart.
(2)(i) A list of identification numbers for equipment that the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material elects to designate for no detectable emissions, as indicated by an instrument reading of less than five hundred (500) ppm above background, under the provisions of sections 261.1052(e), 261.1053(i), and 261.1057(f).
(3) A list of equipment identification numbers for pressure relief devices required to comply with section 261.1054(a).
(ii) The background level measured during each compliance test.
(iii) The maximum instrument reading measured at the equipment during each compliance test.
(4)(i) The dates of each compliance test required in sections 261.1052(e), 261.1053(i), 261.1054, and 261.1057(f).
(h) The following information pertaining to all valves subject to the requirements of section 261.1057(g) and (h) shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility:
(i) The following information shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility for valves complying with section 261.1062:
(j) The following information shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility:
(k) The following information shall be recorded in a log that is kept at the facility for use in determining exemptions as provided in the applicability section of this subpart and other specific subparts:
(m) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material at a facility with equipment that is subject to this subpart and to regulations at 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63 may elect to determine compliance with this subpart either by documentation pursuant to section 261.1064, or by documentation of compliance with the regulations at 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63 pursuant to the relevant provisions of the regulations at 40 part 60, part 61, or part 63. The documentation of compliance under regulations at 40 CFR part 60, part 61, or part 63 shall be kept with or made readily available at the facility.
261.1065. [Reserved]
261.1066. [Reserved]
261.1067. [Reserved]
261.1068. [Reserved]
261.1069. [Reserved]
261.1070. [Reserved]
261.1071. [Reserved]
261.1072. [Reserved]
261.1073. [Reserved]
261.1074. [Reserved]
261.1075. [Reserved]
261.1076. [Reserved]
261.1077. [Reserved]
261.1078. [Reserved]
261.1079. [Reserved]
SUBPART CC
Air Emission Standards for Tanks and Containers
261.1080. Applicability.
(b) [Reserved]
(3) A container that is greater than one hundred nineteen (119) gallons in size and no more than 0.3 percent by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner.
“Enclosure” means a structure that surrounds a tank or container, captures organic vapors emitted from the tank or container, and vents the captured vapors through a closed-vent system to a control device.
“External floating roof” means a pontoon-type or double-deck type cover that rests on the surface of the material managed in a tank with no fixed roof.
“Fixed roof” means a cover that is mounted on a unit in a stationary position and does not move with fluctuations in the level of the material managed in the unit.
“Floating membrane cover” means a cover consisting of a synthetic flexible membrane material that rests upon and is supported by the hazardous secondary material being managed in a surface impoundment.
“Floating roof” means a cover consisting of a double deck, pontoon single deck, or internal floating cover which rests upon and is supported by the material being contained, and is equipped with a continuous seal.
“Hard-piping” means pipe or tubing that is manufactured and properly installed in accordance with relevant standards and good engineering practices.
“In light material service” means the container is used to manage a material for which both of the following conditions apply: The vapor pressure of one (1) or more of the organic constituents in the material is greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at twenty degrees Celsius (20°C); and the total concentration of the pure organic constituents having a vapor pressure greater than 0.3 kilopascals (kPa) at 20°C is equal to or greater than twenty (20) percent by weight.
“Internal floating roof” means a cover that rests or floats on the material surface (but not necessarily in complete contact with it) inside a tank that has a fixed roof.
“Liquid-mounted seal” means a foam or liquid-filled primary seal mounted in contact with the hazardous secondary material between the tank wall and the floating roof continuously around the circumference of the tank.
“Malfunction” means any sudden, infrequent, and not reasonably preventable failure of air pollution control equipment, process equipment, or a process to operate in a normal or usual manner. Failures that are caused in part by poor maintenance or careless operation are not malfunctions.
“Material determination” means performing all applicable procedures in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084 to determine whether a hazardous secondary material meets standards specified in this subpart. Examples of a material determination include performing the procedures in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084 of this subpart to determine the average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination; the average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material treatment and comparing the results to the exit concentration limit specified for the process used to treat the hazardous secondary material; the organic reduction efficiency and the organic biodegradation efficiency for a biological process used to treat a hazardous secondary material and comparing the results to the applicable standards; or the maximum volatile organic vapor pressure for a hazardous secondary material in a tank and comparing the results to the applicable standards.
“Maximum organic vapor pressure” means the sum of the individual organic constituent partial pressures exerted by the material contained in a tank, at the maximum vapor pressure-causing conditions (i.e., temperature, agitation, pH effects of combining materials, etc.) reasonably expected to occur in the tank. For the purpose of this subpart, maximum organic vapor pressure is determined using the procedures specified in section 261.1084(c).
“Metallic shoe seal” means a continuous seal that is constructed of metal sheets which are held vertically against the wall of the tank by springs, weighted levers, or other mechanisms and is connected to the floating roof by braces or other means. A flexible coated fabric (envelope) spans the annular space between the metal sheet and the floating roof.
“No detectable organic emissions” means no escape of organics to the atmosphere as determined using the procedure specified in section 261.1084(d).
“Point of material origination” means as follows:
(1) When the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is the generator of the hazardous secondary material, the point of material origination means the point where a material produced by a system, process, or material management unit is determined to be a hazardous secondary material excluded under section 261.4(a)(27).
Note to paragraph (1) of the definition of “Point of material origination”: In this case, this term is being used in a manner similar to the use of the term “point of generation” in air standards established under authority of the Clean Air Act in 40 CFR parts 60, 61, and 63.
(2) When the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is not the generator of the hazardous secondary material, point of material origination means the point where the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material accepts delivery or takes possession of the hazardous secondary material.
“Safety device” means a closure device such as a pressure relief valve, frangible disc, fusible plug, or any other type of device which functions exclusively to prevent physical damage or permanent deformation to a unit or its air emission control equipment by venting gases or vapors directly to the atmosphere during unsafe conditions resulting from an unplanned, accidental, or emergency event. For the purpose of this subpart, a safety device is not used for routine venting of gases or vapors from the vapor headspace underneath a cover such as during filling of the unit or to adjust the pressure in this vapor headspace in response to normal daily diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations. A safety device is designed to remain in a closed position during normal operations and open only when the internal pressure, or another relevant parameter, exceeds the device threshold setting applicable to the air emission control equipment as determined by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material based on manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials.
“Single-seal system” means a floating roof having one (1) continuous seal. This seal may be vapor-mounted, liquid-mounted, or a metallic shoe seal.
“Vapor-mounted seal” means a continuous seal that is mounted such that there is a vapor space between the hazardous secondary material in the unit and the bottom of the seal.
“Volatile organic concentration” or “VO concentration” means the fraction by weight of the volatile organic compounds contained in a hazardous secondary material expressed in terms of parts per million by weight (ppmw) as determined by direct measurement or by knowledge of the material in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084. For the purpose of determining the VO concentration of a hazardous secondary material, organic compounds with a Henry’s law constant value of at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in the liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) (which can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10-6atmospheres/gram-mole/m3) at twenty-five degrees Celsius (25°C) must be included.
261.1082. Standards: General.
261.1081. Definitions.
As used in this subpart, all terms not defined herein shall have the meaning given to them in the South Carolina Hazardous Waste Management Act and R.61-79.260 through 266.
“Average volatile organic concentration or average VO concentration” means the mass-weighted average volatile organic concentration of a hazardous secondary material as determined in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084.
“Closure device” means a cap, hatch, lid, plug, seal, valve, or other type of fitting that blocks an opening in a cover such that when the device is secured in the closed position it prevents or reduces air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. Closure devices include devices that are detachable from the cover (e.g., a sampling port cap), manually operated (e.g., a hinged access lid or hatch), or automatically operated (e.g., a spring-loaded pressure relief valve).
“Continuous seal” means a seal that forms a continuous closure that completely covers the space between the edge of the floating roof and the wall of a tank. A continuous seal may be a vapor-mounted seal, liquid-mounted seal, or metallic shoe seal. A continuous seal may be constructed of fastened segments so as to form a continuous seal.
“Cover” means a device that provides a continuous barrier over the hazardous secondary material managed in a unit to prevent or reduce air pollutant emissions to the atmosphere. A cover may have openings (such as access hatches, sampling ports, gauge wells) that are necessary for operation, inspection, maintenance, and repair of the unit on which the cover is used. A cover may be a separate piece of equipment which can be detached and removed from the unit or a cover may be formed by structural features permanently integrated into the design of the unit.
“Empty hazardous secondary material container” means:
(c) A tank or container is exempt from standards specified in sections 261.1084 through 261.1087, as applicable, provided that the hazardous secondary material management unit is a tank or container for which all hazardous secondary material entering the unit has an average VO concentration at the point of material origination of less than five hundred (500) parts per million by weight (ppmw). The average VO concentration shall be determined using the procedures specified in section 261.1083(a) of this subpart. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall review and update, as necessary, this determination at least once every twelve (12) months following the date of the initial determination for the hazardous secondary material streams entering the unit.
261.1083. Material determination procedures.
(a) Material determination procedure to determine average volatile organic (VO) concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination.
(1) Determining average VO concentration at the point of material origination. A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall determine the average VO concentration at the point of material origination for each hazardous secondary material placed in a hazardous secondary material management unit exempted under the provisions of section 261.1082(c)(1) from using air emission controls in accordance with standards specified in sections 261.1084 through 261.1087, as applicable to the hazardous secondary material management unit.
(3) Direct measurement to determine average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination-
(ii) Sampling. Samples of the hazardous secondary material stream shall be collected at the point of material origination in a manner such that volatilization of organics contained in the material and in the subsequent sample is minimized and an adequately representative sample is collected and maintained for analysis by the selected method.
(D) Sufficient information, as specified in the “site sampling plan” required under paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, shall be prepared and recorded to document the material quantity represented by the samples and, as applicable, the operating conditions for the source or process generating the hazardous secondary material represented by the samples.
(iii) Analysis. Each collected sample shall be prepared and analyzed in accordance with Method 25D in 40 CFR part 60, appendix A for the total concentration of volatile organic constituents, or using one (1) or more methods when the individual organic compound concentrations are identified and summed and the summed material concentration accounts for and reflects all organic compounds in the material with Henry’s law constant values at least 0.1 mole-fraction-in-the-gas-phase/mole-fraction-in-the-liquid-phase (0.1 Y/X) [which can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10-6atmospheres/gram-mole/m3] at twenty-five degrees Celsius (25°C). At the discretion of the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material, the test data obtained may be adjusted by any appropriate method to discount any contribution to the total volatile organic concentration that is a result of including a compound with a Henry’s law constant value of less than 0.1 Y/X at 25°C). To adjust these data, the measured concentration of each individual chemical constituent contained in the material is multiplied by the appropriate constituent-specific adjustment factor (fm25D). If the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material elects to adjust the test data, the adjustment must be made to all individual chemical constituents with a Henry’s law constant value greater than or equal to 0.1 Y/X at 25°C) contained in the material. Constituent-specific adjustment factors (fm25D) can be obtained by contacting the Waste and Chemical Processes Group, Office of Air Quality Planning and Standards, Research Triangle Park, NC 27711. Other test methods may be used if they meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section and provided the requirement to reflect all organic compounds in the material with Henry’s law constant values greater than or equal to 0.1 Y/X [which can also be expressed as 1.8 × 10-6atmospheres/gram-mole/m3] at 25°C), is met.
(iv) Calculations.
(A) The average VO concentration (C) on a mass-weighted basis shall be calculated by using the results for all material determinations conducted in accordance with paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section and the following equation
[V0380161.TIF]
[V0380161]
Where:
[MacronAccent]C = Average VO concentration of the hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination on a mass-weighted basis, ppmw.
i = Individual material determination “i” of the hazardous secondary material.
n = Total number of material determinations of the hazardous secondary material conducted for the averaging period (not to exceed one (1) year).
Qi = Mass quantity of hazardous secondary material stream represented by Ci, kg/hr.
QT = Total mass quantity of hazardous secondary material during the averaging period, kg/hr.
Ci = Measured VO concentration of material determination “i” as determined in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section (i.e., the average of the four or more samples specified in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section), ppmw.
(B) For the purpose of determining Ci, for individual material samples analyzed in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall account for VO concentrations determined to be below the limit of detection of the analytical method by using the following VO concentration:
(4) Use of knowledge by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material to determine average VO concentration of a hazardous secondary material at the point of material origination.
(ii) If test data are used as the basis for knowledge, then the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall document the test method, sampling protocol, and the means by which sampling variability and analytical variability are accounted for in the determination of the average VO concentration. For example, a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material may use organic concentration test data for the hazardous secondary material stream that are validated in accordance with Method 301 in 40 CFR part 63, appendix A as the basis for knowledge of the material.
(iii) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using chemical constituent-specific concentration test data as the basis for knowledge of the hazardous secondary material may adjust the test data to the corresponding average VO concentration value which would have been obtained had the material samples been analyzed using Method 25D in 40 CFR part 60, appendix A. To adjust these data, the measured concentration for each individual chemical constituent contained in the material is multiplied by the appropriate constituent-specific adjustment factor (fm25D).
(c) Procedure to determine the maximum organic vapor pressure of a hazardous secondary material in a tank.
(3) Direct measurement to determine the maximum organic vapor pressure of a hazardous secondary material.
(ii) Analysis. Any one (1) of the appropriate following methods may be used to analyze the samples and compute the maximum organic vapor pressure of the hazardous secondary material:
(d) Procedure for determining no detectable organic emissions for the purpose of complying with this subpart:
(5) Calibration gases shall be as follows:
(9) For the seals around a rotating shaft that passes through a cover opening, the arithmetic difference between the maximum organic concentration indicated by the instrument and the background level shall be compared with the value of ten thousand (10,000) ppmw. If the difference is less than ten thousand (10,000) ppmw, then the potential leak interface is determined to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
261.1084. Standards: Tanks.
(b) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall control air pollutant emissions from each tank subject to this section in accordance with the following requirements as applicable:
(1) For a tank that manages hazardous secondary material that meets all of the conditions specified in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall control air pollutant emissions from the tank in accordance with the Tank Level 1 controls specified in paragraph (c) of this section or the Tank Level 2 controls specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
(i) The hazardous secondary material in the tank has a maximum organic vapor pressure which is less than the maximum organic vapor pressure limit for the tank’s design capacity category as follows:
(c) Remanufacturers or other persons that store or treats the hazardous secondary material controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank Level 1 controls shall meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section:
(2) The tank shall be equipped with a fixed roof designed to meet the following specifications:
(ii) The fixed roof shall be installed in a manner such that there are no visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces between roof section joints or between the interface of the roof edge and the tank wall.
(B) Connected by a closed-vent system that is vented to a control device. The control device shall remove or destroy organics in the vent stream, and shall be operating whenever hazardous secondary material is managed in the tank, except as provided for in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(B)(1) and (2) of this section.
(iii) Each opening in the fixed roof, and any manifold system associated with the fixed roof, shall be either:
(3) Whenever a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the fixed roof shall be installed with each closure device secured in the closed position except as follows:
(i) Opening of closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the following times:
(ii) Opening of a spring-loaded pressure-vacuum relief valve, conservation vent, or similar type of pressure relief device which vents to the atmosphere is allowed during normal operations for the purpose of maintaining the tank internal pressure in accordance with the tank design specifications. The device shall be designed to operate with no detectable organic emissions when the device is secured in the closed position. The settings at which the device opens shall be established such that the device remains in the closed position whenever the tank internal pressure is within the internal pressure operating range determined by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material based on the tank manufacturer recommendations, applicable regulations, fire protection and prevention codes, standard engineering codes and practices, or other requirements for the safe handling of flammable, ignitable, explosive, reactive, or hazardous materials. Examples of normal operating conditions that may require these devices to open are during those times when the tank internal pressure exceeds the internal pressure operating range for the tank as a result of loading operations or diurnal ambient temperature fluctuations.
(iii) Opening of a safety device, as defined in section 261.1081, is allowed at any time conditions require doing so to avoid an unsafe condition.
(4) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect the air emission control equipment in accordance with the following requirements.
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform an initial inspection of the fixed roof and its closure devices on or before the date that the tank becomes subject to this section. Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform the inspections at least once every year except under the special conditions provided for in paragraph (l) of this section.
(iii) In the event that a defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (k) of this section.
(d) Remanufacturers or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary material controlling air pollutant emissions from a tank using Tank Level 2 controls shall use one (1) of the following tanks:
(e) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using a fixed roof with an internal floating roof shall meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (e)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) The tank shall be equipped with a fixed roof and an internal floating roof in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) The internal floating roof shall be equipped with a continuous seal between the wall of the tank and the floating roof edge that meets either of the following requirements:
(B) Two (2) continuous seals mounted one above the other. The lower seal may be a vapor-mounted seal.
(iii) The internal floating roof shall meet the following specifications:
(2) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall operate the tank in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) Automatic bleeder vents are to be set closed at all times when the roof is floating, except when the roof is being floated off or is being landed on the leg supports.
(iii) Prior to filling the tank, each cover, access hatch, gauge float well or lid on any opening in the internal floating roof shall be bolted or fastened closed (i.e., no visible gaps). Rim space vents are to be set to open only when the internal floating roof is not floating or when the pressure beneath the rim exceeds the manufacturer’s recommended setting.
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect the internal floating roof in accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect the internal floating roof components as follows except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section:
(B) Visually inspect the internal floating roof, primary seal, secondary seal (if one is in service), gaskets, slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is emptied and degassed and at least every ten (10) years.
(iii) As an alternative to performing the inspections specified in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section for an internal floating roof equipped with two (2) continuous seals mounted one above the other, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material may visually inspect the internal floating roof, primary and secondary seals, gaskets, slotted membranes, and sleeve seals (if any) each time the tank is emptied and degassed and at least every five (5) years.
(iv) Prior to each inspection required by paragraph (e)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall notify the Department in advance of each inspection to provide the Department with the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall notify the Department of the date and location of the inspection as follows:
(f) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who controls air pollutant emissions from a tank using an external floating roof shall meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall design the external floating roof in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) The floating roof shall be equipped with two (2) continuous seals, one above the other, between the wall of the tank and the roof edge. The lower seal is referred to as the primary seal, and the upper seal is referred to as the secondary seal.
(B) The secondary seal shall be mounted above the primary seal and cover the annular space between the floating roof and the wall of the tank. The total area of the gaps between the tank wall and the secondary seal shall not exceed 21.2 cm2 per meter of tank diameter, and the width of any portion of these gaps shall not exceed 1.3 cm.
(iii) The external floating roof shall meet the following specifications:
(2) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall operate the tank in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) Except for automatic bleeder vents, rim space vents, roof drains, and leg sleeves, each opening in the roof shall be secured and maintained in a closed position at all times except when the closure device must be open for access.
(iii) Covers on each access hatch and each gauge float well shall be bolted or fastened when secured in the closed position.
(vi) The cap on the end of each unslotted guide pole shall be secured in the closed position at all times except when measuring the level or collecting samples of the liquid in the tank.
(vii) The cover on each gauge hatch or sample well shall be secured in the closed position at all times except when the hatch or well must be opened for access.
(viii) Both the primary seal and the secondary seal shall completely cover the annular space between the external floating roof and the wall of the tank in a continuous fashion except during inspections.
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect the external floating roof in accordance with the procedures specified as follows:
(i) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall measure the external floating roof seal gaps in accordance with the following requirements:
(D) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall determine the total surface area of gaps in the primary seal and in the secondary seal individually using the following procedure:
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall visually inspect the external floating roof in accordance with the following requirements:
(D) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall maintain a record of the inspection in accordance with the requirements specified in section 261.1089(b).
(iii) Prior to each inspection required by paragraph (f)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall notify the Department in advance of each inspection to provide the Department with the opportunity to have an observer present during the inspection. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall notify the Department of the date and location of the inspection as follows:
(g) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who controls air pollutant emissions from a tank by venting the tank to a control device shall meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this section.
(1) The tank shall be covered by a fixed roof and vented directly through a closed-vent system to a control device in accordance with the following requirements:
(ii) Each opening in the fixed roof not vented to the control device shall be equipped with a closure device. If the pressure in the vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is less than atmospheric pressure when the control device is operating, the closure devices shall be designed to operate such that when the closure device is secured in the closed position there are no visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces in the closure device or between the perimeter of the cover opening and the closure device. If the pressure in the vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof is equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure when the control device is operating, the closure device shall be designed to operate with no detectable organic emissions.
(iii) The fixed roof and its closure devices shall be made of suitable materials that will minimize exposure of the hazardous secondary material to the atmosphere, to the extent practical, and will maintain the integrity of the fixed roof and closure devices throughout their intended service life. Factors to be considered when selecting the materials for and designing the fixed roof and closure devices shall include: Organic vapor permeability, the effects of any contact with the liquid and its vapor managed in the tank; the effects of outdoor exposure to wind, moisture, and sunlight; and the operating practices used for the tank on which the fixed roof is installed.
(2) Whenever a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the fixed roof shall be installed with each closure device secured in the closed position and the vapor headspace underneath the fixed roof vented to the control device except as follows:
(i) Venting to the control device is not required, and opening of closure devices or removal of the fixed roof is allowed at the following times:
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall inspect and monitor the air emission control equipment in accordance with the following procedures:
(ii) The closed-vent system and control device shall be inspected and monitored by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in accordance with the procedures specified in section 261.1087.
(iii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform an initial inspection of the air emission control equipment on or before the date that the tank becomes subject to this section. Thereafter, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall perform the inspections at least once every year except for the special conditions provided for in paragraph (l) of this section.
(h) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who controls air pollutant emissions by using a pressure tank shall meet the following requirements.
(3) Whenever a hazardous secondary material is in the tank, the tank shall be operated as a closed system that does not vent to the atmosphere except under either or the following conditions as specified in paragraph (h)(3)(i) or (h)(3)(ii) of this section.
(i) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who controls air pollutant emissions by using an enclosure vented through a closed-vent system to an enclosed combustion control device shall meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (i)(1) through (4) of this section.
(j) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall transfer hazardous secondary material to a tank subject to this section in accordance with the following requirements:
(2) The requirements of paragraph (j)(1) of this section do not apply when transferring a hazardous secondary material to the tank under any of the following conditions:
(ii) The hazardous secondary material has been treated by an organic destruction or removal process to meet the requirements in section 261.1082(c)(2).
(iii) The hazardous secondary material meets the requirements of section 261.1082(c)(4).
(k) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair each defect detected during an inspection performed in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(4), (e)(3), (f)(3), or (g)(3) of this section as follows:
(l) Following the initial inspection and monitoring of the cover as required by the applicable provisions of this subpart, subsequent inspection and monitoring may be performed at intervals longer than one (1) year under the following special conditions:
(1) In the case when inspecting or monitoring the cover would expose a worker to dangerous, hazardous, or other unsafe conditions, then the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material may designate a cover as an “unsafe to inspect and monitor cover” and comply with all of the following requirements:
(2) In the case when a tank is buried partially or entirely underground, a remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material is required to inspect and monitor, as required by the applicable provisions of this section, only those portions of the tank cover and those connections to the tank (e.g., fill ports, access hatches, gauge wells, etc.) that are located on or above the ground surface.
261.1085. [Reserved]
261.1086. Standards: Containers.
(b) General requirements.
(1) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall control air pollutant emissions from each container subject to this section in accordance with the following requirements, as applicable to the container.
(ii) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m3 that is not in light material service, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance with the Container Level 1 standards specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(iii) For a container having a design capacity greater than 0.46 m3 that is in light material service, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall control air pollutant emissions from the container in accordance with the Container Level 2 standards specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
(c) Container Level 1 standards.
(1) A container using Container Level 1 controls is one of the following:
(ii) A container equipped with a cover and closure devices that form a continuous barrier over the container openings such that when the cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position there are no visible holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of the container. The cover may be a separate cover installed on the container (e.g., a lid on a drum or a suitably secured tarp on a roll-off box) or may be an integral part of the container structural design (e.g., a “portable tank” or bulk cargo container equipped with a screw-type cap).
(iii) An open-top container in which an organic-vapor suppressing barrier is placed on or over the hazardous secondary material in the container such that no hazardous secondary material is exposed to the atmosphere. One example of such a barrier is application of a suitable organic-vapor suppressing foam.
(3) Whenever a hazardous secondary material is in a container using Container Level 1 controls, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall install all covers and closure devices for the container, as applicable to the container, and secure and maintain each closure device in the closed position except as follows:
(i) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of adding hazardous secondary material or other material to the container as follows:
(ii) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of removing hazardous secondary material from the container as follows:
(B) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material are removed from the container, but the container is not an empty hazardous secondary material container, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the completion of a batch removal after which no additional material will be removed from the container within fifteen (15) minutes or the person performing the unloading operation leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever condition occurs first.
(iii) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside the container is needed to perform routine activities other than transfer of hazardous secondary material. Examples of such activities include those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the container. Following completion of the activity, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall promptly secure the closure device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container.
(4) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using containers with Container Level 1 controls shall inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices as follows:
(ii) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous secondary material remains at the facility for a period of one (1) year or more, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall visually inspect the container and its cover and closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every twelve (12) months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section.
(iii) When a defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure devices, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall make first efforts at repair of the defect no later than twenty-four (24) hours after detection and repair shall be completed as soon as possible but no later than five (5) calendar days after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within five (5) calendar days, then the hazardous secondary material shall be removed from the container and the container shall not be used to manage hazardous secondary material until the defect is repaired.
(d) Container Level 2 standards.
(1) A container using Container Level 2 controls is one of the following:
(ii) A container that operates with no detectable organic emissions as defined in section 261.1081 and determined in accordance with the procedure specified in paragraph (g) of this section.
(iii) A container that has been demonstrated within the preceding twelve (12) months to be vapor-tight by using 40 CFR part 60, appendix A, Method 27 in accordance with the procedure specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
(3) Whenever a hazardous secondary material is in a container using Container Level 2 controls, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall install all covers and closure devices for the container, and secure and maintain each closure device in the closed position except as follows:
(i) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of adding hazardous secondary material or other material to the container as follows:
(ii) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed for the purpose of removing hazardous secondary material from the container as follows:
(B) In the case when discrete quantities or batches of material are removed from the container, but the container is not an empty hazardous secondary materials container, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall promptly secure the closure devices in the closed position and install covers, as applicable to the container, upon the completion of a batch removal after which no additional material will be removed from the container within fifteen (15) minutes or the person performing the unloading operation leaves the immediate vicinity of the container, whichever condition occurs first.
(iii) Opening of a closure device or cover is allowed when access inside the container is needed to perform routine activities other than transfer of hazardous secondary material. Examples of such activities include those times when a worker needs to open a port to measure the depth of or sample the material in the container, or when a worker needs to open a manhole hatch to access equipment inside the container. Following completion of the activity, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall promptly secure the closure device in the closed position or reinstall the cover, as applicable to the container.
(4) The remanufacture or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using containers with Container Level 2 controls shall inspect the containers and their covers and closure devices as follows:
(ii) In the case when a container used for managing hazardous secondary material remains at the facility for a period of one (1) year or more, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall visually inspect the container and its cover and closure devices initially and thereafter, at least once every twelve (12) months, to check for visible cracks, holes, gaps, or other open spaces into the interior of the container when the cover and closure devices are secured in the closed position. If a defect is detected, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall repair the defect in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section.
(iii) When a defect is detected for the container, cover, or closure devices, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall make first efforts at repair of the defect no later than twenty-four (24) hours after detection, and repair shall be completed as soon as possible but no later than five (5) calendar days after detection. If repair of a defect cannot be completed within five (5) calendar days, then the hazardous secondary material shall be removed from the container and the container shall not be used to manage hazardous secondary material until the defect is repaired.
(e) Container Level 3 standards.
(1) A container using Container Level 3 controls is one of the following:
(2) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall meet the following requirements, as applicable to the type of air emission control equipment selected by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material:
(f) For the purpose of compliance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(i) of this section, containers shall be used that meet the applicable DOT regulations on packaging hazardous materials for transportation as follows:
(g) To determine compliance with the no detectable organic emissions requirement of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the procedure specified in section 261.1083(d) shall be used.
(h) Procedure for determining a container to be vapor-tight using Method 27 of 40 CFR part 60, appendix A for the purpose of complying with paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section.
(3) If the test results determined by Method 27 indicate that the container sustains a pressure change less than or equal to 750 Pascals within five (5) minutes after it is pressurized to a minimum of 4,500 Pascals, then the container is determined to be vapor-tight.
261.1087. Standards: Closed-vent systems and control devices.
(b) The closed-vent system shall meet the following requirements:
(3) In the case when the closed-vent system includes bypass devices that could be used to divert the gas or vapor stream to the atmosphere before entering the control device, each bypass device shall be equipped with either a flow indicator as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section or a seal or locking device as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section. For the purpose of complying with this paragraph, low leg drains, high point bleeds, analyzer vents, open-ended valves or lines, spring loaded pressure relief valves, and other fittings used for safety purposes are not considered to be bypass devices.
(c) The control device shall meet the following requirements:
(1) The control device shall be one of the following devices:
(ii) An enclosed combustion device designed and operated in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1033(c); or
(iii) A flare designed and operated in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1033(d).
(2) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material who elects to use a closed-vent system and control device to comply with the requirements of this section shall comply with the requirements specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section.
(ii) The specifications and requirements in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section for control devices do not apply during periods of planned routine maintenance.
(iii) The specifications and requirements in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section for control devices do not apply during a control device system malfunction.
(3) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using a carbon adsorption system to comply with paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall operate and maintain the control device in accordance with the following requirements:
(5) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall demonstrate that a control device achieves the performance requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section as follows:
(i) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall demonstrate using either a performance test as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section or a design analysis as specified in paragraph (c)(5)(iv) of this section the performance of each control device except for the following:
(ii) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall demonstrate the performance of each flare in accordance with the requirements specified in section 261.1033(e).
(iii) For a performance test conducted to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall use the test methods and procedures specified in section 261.1034(c)(1) through (4).
(7) The closed-vent system and control device shall be inspected and monitored by the remanufacture or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material in accordance with the procedures specified in section 261.1033(f)(2) and (l). The readings from each monitoring device required by section 261.1033(f)(2) shall be inspected at least once each operating day to check control device operation. Any necessary corrective measures shall be immediately implemented to ensure the control device is operated in compliance with the requirements of this section.
261.1088. Inspection and monitoring requirements.
(b) The remanufacture or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall develop and implement a written plan and schedule to perform the inspections and monitoring required by paragraph (a) of this section. The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall keep the plan and schedule at the facility.
261.1089. Recordkeeping requirements.
(b) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using a tank with air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084 shall prepare and maintain records for the tank that include the following information:
(1) For each tank using air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1084, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall record:
(ii) A record for each inspection required by section 261.1084 that includes the following information:
(2) In addition to the information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall record the following information, as applicable to the tank:
(ii) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using an internal floating roof to comply with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in section 261.1084(e) shall prepare and maintain documentation describing the floating roof design.
(iii) Remanufacturer or other persons that store or treat the hazardous secondary material using an external floating roof to comply with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in section 261.1084(f) shall prepare and maintain the following records:
(iv) Each remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using an enclosure to comply with the Tank Level 2 control requirements specified in section 261.1084(i) shall prepare and maintain the following records:
(d) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using containers with Container Level 3 air emission controls in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1086 shall prepare and maintain records that include the following information:
(e) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using a closed-vent system and control device in accordance with the requirements of section 261.1087 shall prepare and maintain records that include the following information:
(1) Documentation for the closed-vent system and control device that includes:
(ii) If a design analysis is used, then design documentation as specified in section 261.1035(b)(4). The documentation shall include information prepared by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material or provided by the control device manufacturer or vendor that describes the control device design in accordance with section 261.1035(b)(4)(iii) and certification by the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material that the control equipment meets the applicable specifications.
(iii) If performance tests are used, then a performance test plan as specified in section 261.1035(b)(3) and all test results.
(v) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall record, on a semiannual basis, the information specified in paragraphs (e)(1)(v)(A) and (B) of this section for those planned routine maintenance operations that would require the control device not to meet the requirements of section 261.1087(c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii), as applicable.
(vi) A remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall record the information specified in paragraphs (e)(1)(vi)(A) through (C) of this section for those unexpected control device system malfunctions that would require the control device not to meet the requirements of section 261.1087(c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii), as applicable.
(C) Actions taken during periods of malfunction to restore a malfunctioning control device to its normal or usual manner of operation.
(vii) Records of the management of carbon removed from a carbon adsorption system conducted in accordance with section 261.1087(c)(3)(ii).
(f)(1) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material using a tank or container exempted under the hazardous secondary material organic concentration conditions specified in section 261.1082(c)(1) or (c)(2)(i) through (vi), shall prepare and maintain at the facility records documenting the information used for each material determination (e.g., test results, measurements, calculations, and other documentation). If analysis results for material samples are used for the material determination, then the remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material shall record the date, time, and location that each material sample is collected in accordance with applicable requirements of section 261.1083.
(h) The remanufacturer or other person that stores or treats the hazardous secondary material that is subject to this subpart and to the control device standards in 40 CFR part 60, subpart VV, or 40 CFR part 61, subpart V, may elect to demonstrate compliance with the applicable sections of this subpart by documentation either pursuant to this subpart, or pursuant to the provisions of 40 CFR part 60, subpart VV or 40 CFR part 61, subpart V, to the extent that the documentation required by 40 CFR parts 60 or 61 duplicates the documentation required by this section.
261.1090. [Reserved]
APPENDICES
Appendix I. Representative Sampling Methods
The methods and equipment used for sampling waste materials will vary with the form and consistency of the waste materials to be sampled. Samples collected using the sampling protocols listed below, for sampling waste with properties similar to the indicated materials, will be considered by the Agency to be representative of the waste.
Extremely viscous liquid—ASTM Standard D140-70 Crushed or powdered material—ASTM Standard D346-75 Soil or rock-like material—ASTM Standard D1452-65
Fly Ash-like material—ASTM Standard D2234-76 [ASTM Standards are available from ASTM, 1916 Race Street, Philadelphia, P.A. 19103]
Containerized liquid wastes - “COLIWASA” described in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,”1A U.S. Environmental Protection Agency Publication SW-846.
Liquid waste in pits, ponds, lagoons, and similar reservoirs. “Pond Sampler” described in “Test Methods for the Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods.”1A
This manual also contains additional information on application of these protocols.
1AThese methods are also described in Samplers and Sampling Procedures for Hazardous Waste Streams, EPA 600/2-80-018, January 1980. The Department will consider other methodologies for testing from other sources (such as) i.e., Standard Methods, other Federal Regulations, as long as the proper QA/QC is provided.
Appendix II. Method 1311 Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)
Appendix VII. BASIS FOR LISTING HAZARDOUS WASTE
| EPA Hazardous Waste No. | Hazardous constituents for which listed |
| F001 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, carbon tetrachloride, chlorinated fluorocarbons. |
| F002 | Tetrachloroethylene, methylene chloride, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, chlorobenzene, 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane, ortho-dichlorobenzene, trichlorofluoromethane. |
| F003 | N.A. |
| F004 | Cresols and cresylic acid, nitrobenzene. |
| F005 | Toluene, methyl ethyl ketone, carbon disulfide, isobutanol, pyridine, 2-ethoxyethanol, benzene, 2-nitropropane. |
| F006 | Cadmium, hexavalent chromium, nickel, cyanide (complexed). |
| F007 | Cyanide (salts). |
| F008 | Cyanide (salts). |
| F009 | Cyanide (salts). |
| F010 | Cyanide (salts). |
| F011 | Cyanide (salts). |
| F012 | Cyanide (complexed). |
| F019 | Hexavalent chromium, cyanide (complexed). |
| F020 | Tetra-and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra and pentachlorodi-benzofurans; tri-and tetrachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
| F021 | Penta-and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; penta-and hexachlorodibenzofurans; pentachlorophenol and its derivatives. |
| F022 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans. |
| F023 | Tetra-, and pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-and pentachlorodibenzofurans; tri-and tetrachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
| F024 | Chloromethane, dichloromethane, trichloromethane, carbon tetrachloride, chloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethane, 1,2-dichloroethane, trans-1-2-dichloroethylene, 1,1-dichloroethylene, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, trichloroethylene, 1,1,1,2-tetra-chloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, pentachloroethane, hexachloroethane, allyl chloride (3-chloropropene), dichloropropane, dichloropropene, 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachloro-1,3-butadiene, hexachlorocyclopentadiene, hexachlorocyclohexane, benzene, chlorbenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene, tetrachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, toluene, naphthalene. |
| F025 | Chloromethane; Dichloromethane; Trichloromethane; Carbon tetrachloride; Chloroethylene; 1,1-Dichloroethane; 1,2-Dichloroethane; trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene; 1,1-Dichloroethylene; 1,1,1-Trichloroethane; 1,1,2-Trichloroethane; Trichloroethylene; 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane; 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane; Tetrachloroethylene; Pentachloroethane; Hexachloroethane; Allyl chloride (3-Chloropropene); Dichloropropane; Dichloropropene; 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene; Hexachloro-1,3-butadiene; Hexachlorocyclopentadiene; Benzene; Chlorobenzene; Dichlorobenzene; 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene; Tetrachlorobenzene; Pentachlorobenzene; Hexachlorobenzene; Toluene; Naphthalene. |
| F026 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans. |
| F027 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
| F028 | Tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins; tetra-, penta-, and hexachlorodibenzofurans; tri-, tetra-, and pentachlorophenols and their chlorophenoxy derivative acids, esters, ethers, amine and other salts. |
| F032 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)-anthracene,indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, pentachlorophenol, arsenic, chromium, tetra-, penta-, hexa-, heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins, tetra-, penta-, hexa-, heptachlorodibenzofurans (added 12/92) . |
| F034 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, naphthalene, arsenic, chromium (added 12/92). |
| F035 | Arsenic, chromium, lead (added 12/92). |
| F037 | Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium (added 12/92). |
| F038 | Benzene, benzo(a)pyrene, chrysene, lead, chromium (added 12/92). |
| F039 | All constituents for which treatment standards are specified for multi-source leachate (wastewaters and nonwastewaters) under 268.43, Table CCW (added 12/92). |
| K001 | Pentachlorophenol, phenol, 2-chlorophenol, p-chloro-m-cresol, 2,4-dimethylphenyl, 2,4-dinitrophenol, trichlorophenols, tetrachlorophenols, 2,4-dinitrophenol, creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene, benz(a)anthracene, dibenz(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene. |
| K002 | Hexavalent chromium, lead |
| K003 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K004 | Hexavalent chromium. |
| K005 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K006 | Hexavalent chromium. |
| K007 | Cyanide (complexed), hexavalent chromium. |
| K008 | Hexavalent chromium. |
| K009 | Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride, paraldehyde, formic acid. |
| K010 | Chloroform, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, methyl chloride, paraldehyde, formic acid, chloroacetaldehyde. |
| K011 | Acrylonitrile, acetonitrile, hydrocyanic acid. |
| K013 | Hydrocyanic acid, acrylonitrile, acetonitrile. |
| K014 | Acetonitrile, acrylamide. |
| K015 | Benzyl chloride, chlorobenzene, toluene, benzotrichloride. |
| K016 | Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, perchloroethylene. |
| K017 | Epichlorohydrin, chloroethers [bis(chloromethyl) ether and bis (2-chloroethyl) ethers], trichloropropane, dichloropropanols. |
| K018 | 1,2-dichloroethane, trichloroethylene, hexachlorobutadiene, hexachlorobenzene. |
| K019 | Ethylene dichloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, tetrachloroethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane), trichloroethylene, tetrachloroethylene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride. |
| K020 | Ethylene dichloride, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane, tetrachloroethanes (1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane and 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane), trichloroethylene, tetrachloroethylene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride. |
| K021 | Antimony, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform. |
| K022 | Phenol, tars (polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons). |
| K023 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
| K024 | Phthalic anhydride, 1,4-naphthoquinone. |
| K025 | Meta-dinitrobenzene, 2,4-dinitrotoluene. |
| K026 | Paraldehyde, pyridines, 2-picoline. |
| K027 | Toluene diisocyanate, toluene-2, 4-diamine. |
| K028 | 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride. |
| K029 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, vinyl chloride, vinylidene chloride, chloroform. |
| K030 | Hexachlorobenzene, hexachlorobutadiene, hexachloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, ethylene dichloride. |
| K031 | Arsenic. |
| K032 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
| K033 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
| K034 | Hexachlorocyclopentadiene. |
| K035 | Creosote, chrysene, naphthalene, fluoranthene benzo(b) fluoranthene, benzo(a)pyrene, indeno(1,2,3-cd) pyrene, benzo(a)anthracene, dibenzo(a)anthracene, acenaphthalene. |
| K036 | Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
| K037 | Toluene, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
| K038 | Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
| K039 | Phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
| K040 | Phorate, formaldehyde, phosphorodithioic and phosphorothioic acid esters. |
| K041 | Toxaphene. |
| K042 | Hexachlorobenzene, ortho-dichlorobenzene. |
| K043 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,6-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
| K044 | N.A. |
| K045 | N.A. |
| K046 | Lead. |
| K047 | N.A. |
| K048 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K049 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K050 | Hexavalent chromium. |
| K051 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K052 | Lead. |
| K060 | Cyanide, napthalene, phenolic compounds, arsenic. |
| K061 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
| K062 | Hexavalent chromium, lead. |
| K069 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
| K071 | Mercury. |
| K073 | Chloroform, carbon tetrachloride, hexachloroethane, trichloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, dichloroethylene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
| K083 | Aniline, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
| K084 | Arsenic. |
| K085 | Benzene, dichlorobenzenes, trichlorobenzenes, tetrachlorobenzenes, pentachlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, benzyl chloride. |
| K086 | Lead, hexavalent chromium. |
| K087 | Phenol, naphthalene. |
| K088 | Cyanide (complexes). |
| K093 | Phthalic anhydride, maleic anhydride. |
| K094 | Phthalic anhydride. |
| K095 | 1,1,2-trichloroethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloroethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane. |
| K096 | 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane, 1,1,2-trichloroethane. |
| K097 | Chlordane, heptachlor. |
| K098 | Toxaphene. |
| K099 | 2,4-dichlorophenol, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
| K100 | Hexavalent chromium, lead, cadmium. |
| K101 | Arsenic. |
| K102 | Arsenic. |
| K103 | Aniline, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
| K104 | Aniline, benzene, diphenylamine, nitrobenzene, phenylenediamine. |
| K105 | Benzene, monochlorobenzene, dichlorobenzenes, 2,4,6-trichlorophenol. |
| K106 | Mercury. |
| K107 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) (added 12/92). |
| K108 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) (added 12/92). |
| K109 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH (added 12/92). |
| K110 | 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH (added 12/92). |
| K111 | 2,4-Dinitrotoluene. |
| K112 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
| K113 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine, aniline. |
| K114 | 2,4-Toluenediamine, o-toluidine, p-toluidine. |
| K115 | 2,4-Toluenediamine. |
| K116 | Carbon tetrachloride, tetrachloroethylene, chloroform, phosgene. |
| K117 | Ethylene dibromide. |
| K118 | Ethylene dibromide. |
| K123 | Ethylene thiourea. |
| K124 | Ethylene thiourea. |
| K125 | Ethylene thiourea. |
| K126 | Ethylene thiourea. |
| K131 | Dimethyl sulfate, methyl bromide. |
| K132 | Methyl bromide. |
| K136 | Ethylene dibromide. |
| K141 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. (added 12/93) |
| K142 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene.(added 12/93) |
| K143 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene. (added 12/93) |
| K144 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene. (added 12/93) |
| K145 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, naphthalene. (added 12/93) |
| K147 | Benzene, benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. (added 12/93) |
| K148 | Benz(a)anthracene, benzo(a)pyrene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, indeno(1,2,3-cd)pyrene. (added 12/93) |
| K149 | Benzotrichloride, benzyl chloride, chloroform, chloromethane, chlorobenzene, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, toluene. (added 12/93) |
| K150 | Carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, chloromethane, 1,4-dichlorobenzene, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloroethane, tetrachloroethylene, 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene. (added 12/93) |
| K151 | Benzene, carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, hexachlorobenzene, pentachlorobenzene, toluene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachlorobenzene, tetrachloroethylene. (added 12/93) |
| K156 | Benomyl, carbaryl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, formaldehyde, methylene chloride, triethylamine. (added 5/96) |
| K157 | Carbon tetrachloride, formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, pyridine, triethylamine. (added 5/96) |
| K158 | Benomyl, carbendazim, carbofuran, carbosulfan, chloroform, methylene chloride. (added 5/96) |
| K159 | Benzene, butylate, eptc, molinate, pebulate, vernolate. (added 5/96) |
| K160 | Benzene, butylate, eptc, molinate, pebulate, vernolate. (added 5/96) |
| K161 | Antimony, arsenic, metam-sodium, ziram. (added 5/96) |
| K169 | Benzene. |
| K170 | Benzo(a)pyrene, dibenz(a,h)anthracene, benzo(a)anthracene, benzo(b)fluoranthene, benzo(k)fluoranthene, 3-methylcholanthrene, 7,12 dimethylbenz(a)anthracene. |
| K171 | Benzene, arsenic. |
| K172 | Benzene, arsenic. |
| K174 | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDD), 1,2,3,4,6,7,8-Heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,4,6,7,8-HpCDF), 1,2,3,4,7,8,9- Heptachlorodibenzofuran (1,2,3,6,7,8,9-HpCDF), HxCDDs (All Hexachlorodibenzo-p- dioxins), HxCDFs (All Hexachlorodibenzofurans), PeCDDs (All Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins), OCDD (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin, OCDF (1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzofuran), PeCDFs (All Pentachlorodibenzofurans), TCDDs (All tetrachlorodi-benzo- p-dioxins), TCDFs (All tetrachlorodibenzofurans). |
| K175 | Mercury |
| K176 | Arsenic, Lead. |
| K177 | Antimony. |
| K178 | Thallium. |
| K181 | Aniline, o-anisidine, 4-chloroaniline, p-cresidine, 2,4-dimethylaniline, 1,2-phenylenediamine, 1,3-phenylenediamine. |
| K900 | Tributyltin, Tributyltin Oxide, Tributyltin Chloride, Tributyltin Hydroxide, Tributyltin Bromide, Tributyltin Acetate, Tributyltin Fluoride, Triethyltin, Triethyltin Chloride |
N.A.—Waste is hazardous because it fails the test for the characteristic of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity.
Appendix VIII. HAZARDOUS CONSTITUENTS (amended 11/90, 12/92, 12/93)
Appendix VIII to Part 261—Hazardous Constituents
| Appendix VIII Hazardous Constituents | ||
| Common name | Chemical abstracts name (9/98) | CAS # |
| A2213 (5/96) | Ethanimidothioic acid, 2- (dimethylamino)-N-hydroxy-2-oxo-, methyl ester | 30558-43-1 |
| Acetonitrile | Same | 75-05-8 |
| Acetophenone | Ethanone, 1-phenyl- | 98-86-2 |
| 2-Acetylaminefluarone | Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-yl- | 53-96-3 |
| Acetyl chloride | Same | 75-36-5 |
| 1-Acetyl-2-thiourea | Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)- | 591-08-2 |
| Acrolein | 2-Propenal | 107-02-8 |
| Acrylamide | 2-Propenamide | 79-06-1 |
| Acrylonitrile | 2-Propenenitrile | 107-13-1 |
| Aflatoxins | Same | 1402-68-2 |
| Aldicarb | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxime | 116-06-3 |
| Aldicarb sulfone (5/96) | Propanal, 2-methyl-2-(methylsulfonyl), O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime | 1646-88-4 |
| Aldrin | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-, (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5alpha,8alpha, 8abeta)- | 309-00-2 |
| Allyl alcohol | 2-Propen-1-ol | 107-18-6 |
| Allyl chloride | 1-Propane, 3-chloro | 107-05-1 |
| Aluminum phosphide | Same | 20859-73-8 |
| 4-Aminobiphenyl | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4-amine | 92-67-1 |
| 5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol | 3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)- | 2763-96-4 |
| 4-Aminopyridine | 4-Pyridinamine | 504-24-5 |
| Amitrole | 1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine | 61-82-5 |
| Ammonium vanadate | Vanadic acid, ammonium salt | 7803-55-6 |
| Aniline | Benzenamine | 62-53-3 |
| o-Anisidine (2-methoxyaniline) | Benzenamine, 2-Methoxy- | 90-04-0 |
| Antimony | Same | 7440-36-0 |
| Antimony compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Aramite | Sulfurous acid, 2-chloroethyl 2-[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenoxy]-1-methylethyl ester | 140-57-8 |
| Arsenic | Same | 7440-38-2 |
| Arsenic compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Arsenic acid | Arsenic acid H3AsO4 | 7778-39-4 |
| Arsenic pentoxide | Arsenic oxide As2O5 | 1303-28-2 |
| Arsenic trioxide | Arsenic oxide As2O3 | 1327-53-3 |
| Auramine | Benzenamine, 4,4’-carbonimidoylbis[N,N-dimethyl | 492-80-8 |
| Azaserine | L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester) | 115-02-6 |
| Barban (5/96) | Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl) -, 4-chloro-2-butynyl ester | 101-27-9 |
| Barium | Same | 7440-39-3 |
| Barium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Barium cyanide | Same | 542-62-1 |
| Bendiocarb (5/96) | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate | 22781-23-3 |
| Bendiocarb phenol (5/96) | 1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, | 22961-82-6 |
| Benomyl (5/96) | Carbamic acid, [1- [(butylamino) carbonyl]- 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl] -, methyl ester | 17804-35-2 |
| Benz[c]acridine | Same | 225-51-4 |
| Benz[a]anthracene | Same | 56-55-3 |
| Benzal chloride | Benzene, (dichloromethyl)- | 98-87-3 |
| Benzene | Same | 71-43-2 |
| Benzenearsonic acid | Arsonic acid, phenyl- | 98-05-5 |
| Benzidine | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine | 92-87-5 |
| Benzo[b]fluoranthene | Benz[e]acephenanthrylene | 205-99-2 |
| Benzo[j]fluoranthene | Same | 205-82-3 |
| Benzo(k)fluoranthene (5/96) | Same | 207-08-9 |
| Benzo[a]pyrene | Same | 50-32-8 |
| p-Benzoquinone | 2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione | 106-51-4 |
| Benzotrichloride | Benzene, (trichloromethyl)- | 98-07-7 |
| Benzyl chloride | Benzene, (chloromethyl)- | 100-44-7 |
| Beryllium powder | Same | 7440-41-7 |
| Beryllium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Bis (pentamethylene)-thiuram tetrasulfide. | Piperidine, 1,1’-(tetrathiodicarbonothioyl)-bis- | 120-54-7 |
| Bromoacetone | 2-Propanone, 1-bromo- | 598-31-2 |
| Bromoform | Methane, tribromo- | 75-25-2 |
| 4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether | Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy- | 101-55-3 |
| Brucine | Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy- | 357-57-3 |
| Butyl benzyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, butyl phenylmethyl ester | 85-68-7 |
| Butylate (5/96) | Carbamothioic acid, bis (2-methylpropyl)-, S-ethyl ester | 2008-41-5 |
| Cacodylic acid | Arsinic acid, dimethyl- | 75-60-5 |
| Cadmium | Same | 7440-43-9 |
| Cadmium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Calcium chromate | Chromic acid H2CrO4, calcium salt | 13765-19-0 |
| Calcium cyanide | Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2 | 592-01-8 |
| Carbaryl (5/96) | 1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate | 63-25-2 |
| Carbendazim (5/96) | Carbamic acid, 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester | 10605-21-7 |
| Carbofuran (5/96) | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate | 1563-66-2 |
| Carbofuran phenol (9/96) | 7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl- | 1563-38-8 |
| Carbon disulfide | Same | 75-15-0 |
| Carbon oxyfluoride | Carbonic difluoride | 353-50-4 |
| Carbon tetrachloride | Methane, tetrachloro- | 56-23-5 |
| Carbosulfan (6/96) | Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino) thio] methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7-benzofuranyl ester | 55285-14-8 |
| Chloral | Acetaldehyde, trichloro- | 75-87-6 |
| Chlorambucil | Benzenebutanoic acid, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- | 305-03-3 |
| Chlordane | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8-octachloro-2,3,3a,4,7,7a-hexahydro- | 57-74-9 |
| Chlordane (alpha and gamma isomers) | ||
| Chlorinated benzenes, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chlorinated ethane, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chlorinated fluorocarbons, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chlorinated naphthalene, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chlorinated phenol, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chlornaphazin | Naphthalenamine, N,N’-bis(2-chloroethyl)- | 494-03-1 |
| Chloroacetaldehyde | Acetaldehyde, chloro- | 107-20-0 |
| Chloroalkyl ethers, N.O.S.1 | ||
| p-Chloroaniline | Benzenamine, 4-chloro- | 106-47-8 |
| Chlorobenzene | Benzene, chloro- | 108-90-7 |
| Chlorobenzilate | Benzeneacetic acid, 4-chloro-alpha-(4-chlorophenyl)-alpha-hydroxy-, ethyl ester | 510-15-6 |
| p-Chloro-m-cresol | Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl- | 59-50-7 |
| 2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether | Ethene, (2-chloroethoxy)- | 110-75-8 |
| Chloroform | Methane, trichloro- | 67-66-3 |
| Chloromethyl methyl ether | Methane, chloromethoxy- | 107-30-2 |
| beta-Chloronaphthalene | Naphthalene, 2-chloro- | 91-58-7 |
| o-Chlorophenol | Phenol, 2-chloro- | 95-57-8 |
| 1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea | Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)- | 5344-82-1 |
| Chloroprene | 1,3-Butadiene, 2-chloro- | 126-99-8 |
| 3-Chloropropionitrile | Propanenitrile, 3-chloro- | 542-76-7 |
| Chromium | Same | 7440-47-3 |
| Chromium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Chrysene | Same | 218-01-9 |
| Citrus red No. 2 | 2-Naphthalenol, 1-[(2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)azo]- | 6358-53-8 |
| Coal tar creosote | Same | 8007-45-2 |
| Copper cyanide | Copper cyanide CuCN | 544-92-3 |
| Copper dimethyldithiocarbamate | Copper, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, (6/96) | 137-29-1 |
| Creosote | Same | |
| p-Cresidine | 2-Methoxy-5-methylbenzenamine | 120-71-8 |
| Cresol (Cresylic acid) | Phenol, methyl- | 1319-77-3 |
| Crotonaldehyde | 2-Butenal | 4170-30-3 |
| m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate | Phenol, 3-(methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate (5/96) | 64-00-6 |
| Cyanides (soluble salts and complexes) N.O.S.1 | ||
| Cyanogen | Ethanedinitrile | 460-19-5 |
| Cyanogen bromide | Cyanogen bromide (CN)Br | 506-68-3 |
| Cyanogen chloride | Cyanogen chloride (CN)Cl | 506-77-4 |
| Cycasin | beta-D-Glucopyranoside, (methyl-ONN-azoxy)methyl | 14901-08-7 |
| Cycloate | Carbamothioic acid, cyclohexylethyl-, S-ethyl ester | 1134-23-2 |
| 2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro- | 131-89-5 |
| Cyclophosphamide | 2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin-2-amine, N,N-bis(2-chloroethyl)tetrahydro-, 2-oxide | 50-18-0 |
| 2,4-D | Acetic acid, (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)- | 94-75-7 |
| 2,4-D, salts, esters | ||
| Daunomycin | 5,12-Naphthacenedione, 8-acetyl-10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L-lyxo-hexopyranosyl)oxy]-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-, (8S-cis)- | 20830-81-3 |
| Dazomet (5/96) | 2H-1,3,5-thiadiazine-2-thione,tetrahydro-3,5-dimethyl | 533-74-4 |
| DDD | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2-dichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 72-54-8 |
| DDE | Benzene, 1,1’-(dichloroethenylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 72-55-9 |
| DDT | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-chloro- | 50-29-3 |
| Diallate | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester | 2303-16-4 |
| Dibenz[a,h]acridine | Same | 226-36-8 |
| Dibenz[a,j]acridine | Same | 224-42-0 |
| Dibenz[a,h]anthracene | Same | 53-70-3 |
| 7H-Dibenzo[c,g]carbazole | Same | 194-59-2 |
| Dibenzo[a,e]pyrene | Naphtho[1,2,3,4-def]chrysene | 192-65-4 |
| Dibenzo[a,h]pyrene | Dibenzo[b,def]chrysene | 189-64-0 |
| Dibenzo[a,i]pyrene | Benzo[rst]pentaphene | 189-55-9 |
| 1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane | Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro- | 96-12-8 |
| Dibutyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester | 84-74-2 |
| o-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2-dichloro- | 95-50-1 |
| m-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,3-dichloro- | 541-73-1 |
| p-Dichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,4-dichloro- | 106-46-7 |
| Dichlorobenzene, N.O.S.1 | Benzene, dichloro- | 25321-22-6 |
| 3,3’-Dichlorobenzidine | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dichloro- | 91-94-1 |
| 1,4-Dichloro-2-butene | 2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro- | 764-41-0 |
| Dichlorodifluoromethane | Methane, dichlorodifluoro- | 75-71-8 |
| Dichloroethylene, N.O.S.1 | Dichloroethylene | 25323-30-2 |
| 1,1-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-35.-4 |
| 1,2-Dichloroethylene | Ethene, 1,2-dichloro-, (E)- | 156-60-5 |
| Dichloroethyl ether | Ethane, 1,1’oxybis[2-chloro- | 111-44-4 |
| Dichloroisopropyl ether | Propane, 2,2’-oxybis[2-chloro- | 108-60-1 |
| Dichloromethoxy ethane | Ethane, 1,1’-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2-chloro- | 111-91-1 |
| Dichloromethyl ether | Methane, oxybis[chloro- | 542-88-1 |
| 2,4-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dichloro- | 120-83-2 |
| 2,6-Dichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,6-dichloro- | 87-65-0 |
| Dichlorophenylarsine | Arsonous dichloride, phenyl- | 696-28-6 |
| Dichloropropane, N.O.S.1 | Propane, dichloro- | 26638-19-7 |
| Dichloropropanol, N.O.S.1 | Propanol, dichloro- | 26545-73-3 |
| Dichloropropene, N.O.S.1 | 1-Propene, dichloro- | 26952-23-8 |
| 1,3-Dichloropropene | 1-Propene, 1,3-dichloro- | 542-75-6 |
| Dieldrin | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha,3beta,6beta, 6aalpha,7beta,7aalpha)- | 60-57-1 |
| 1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane | 2,2’-Bioxirane | 1464-53-5 |
| Diethylarsine | Arsine, diethyl- | 692-42-2 |
| Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate (5/96) | Ethanol, 2,2’-oxybis-, dicarbamate | 5952-26-1 |
| 1,4-Diethyleneoxide | 1,4-Dioxane | 123-91-1 |
| Diethylhexyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, bis(2-ethylhexyl) ester | 117-81-7 |
| N,N’-Diethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl- | 1615-80-1 |
| O,O-Diethyl S-methyl dithiophosphate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-methyl ester | 3288-58-2 |
| Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate | Phosphoric acid, diethyl 4-nitrophenyl ester | 311-45-5 |
| Diethyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester | 84-66-2 |
| O,O-Diethyl O-pyrazinyl phosphoro- thioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-pyrazinyl ester | 297-97-2 |
| Diethylstilbesterol | Phenol, 4,4’-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-, (E)- | 56-53-1 |
| Dihydrosafrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl- | 94-58-6 |
| Diisopropylfluorophosphate (DFP) | Phosphorofluoridic acid, bis(1-methylethyl) ester | 55-91-4 |
| Dimethoate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S-[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester | 60-51-5 |
| 3,3’-Dimethoxybenzidine | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dimethoxy- | 119-90-4 |
| p-Dimethylaminoazobenzene | Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)- | 60-11-7 |
| 2,4-Dimethylaniline (2,4-xylidine) | Benzenamine, 2,4-dimethyl- | 95-68-1 |
| 7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene | Benz[a]anthracene, 7,12-dimethyl- | 57-97-6 |
| 3,3’-Dimethylbenzidine | [1,1’-Biphenyl]-4,4’-diamine, 3,3’-dimethyl- | 119-93-7 |
| Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride | Carbamic chloride, dimethyl- | 79-44-7 |
| 1,1-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl- | 57-14-7 |
| 1,2-Dimethylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl- | 540-73-8 |
| alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine | Benzeneethanamine, alpha,alpha-dimethyl- | 122-09-8 |
| 2,4-Dimethylphenol | Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl- | 105-67-9 |
| Dimethyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dimethyl ester | 131-11-3 |
| Dimethyl sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester | 77-78-1 |
| Dimetilan (5/96) | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 1-[(dimethylamino) carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3-yl ester | 644-64-4 |
| Dinitrobenzene, N.O.S.1 | Benzene, dinitro- | 25154-54-5 |
| 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol | Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- | 534-52-1 |
| 4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol salts | ||
| 2,4-Dinitrophenol | Phenol, 2,4-dinitro- | 51-28-5 |
| 2,4-Dinitrotoluene | Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro- | 121-14-2 |
| 2,6-Dinitrotoluene | Benzene, 2-methyl-1,3-dinitro- | 606-20-2 |
| Dinoseb | Phenol, 2-(1-methylpropyl)-4,6-dinitro- | 88-85-7 |
| Di-n-octyl phthalate | 1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dioctyl ester | 117-84-0 |
| Diphenylamine | Benzenamine, N-phenyl- | 122-39-4 |
| 1,2-Diphenylhydrazine | Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl- | 122-66-7 |
| Di-n-propylnitrosamine | 1-Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl- | 621-64-7 |
| Disulfiram (5/96) | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetraethyl | 97-77-8 |
| Disulfoton | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2-(ethylthio)ethyl] ester | 298-04-4 |
| Dithiobiuret | Thioimidodicarbonic diamide [(H2N)C(S)]2NH | 541-53-7 |
| Endosulfan | 6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a- hexahydro-, 3-oxide | 115-29-7 |
| Endothall | 7-Oxabicyclo[2.2.1]heptane-2,3-dicarboxylic acid | 145-73-3 |
| Endrin | 2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-,(1aalpha,2beta,2abeta,3alpha,6alpha, 6abeta,7beta,7aalpha)- | 72-20-8 |
| Endrin metabolites | ||
| Epichlorohydrin | Oxirane, (chloromethyl)- | 106-89-8 |
| Epinephrine | 1,2-Benzenediol, 4-[1-hydroxy-2-(methylamino)ethyl]-, (R)- | 51-43-4 |
| EPTC | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-ethyl ester | 759-94-4 |
| Ethyl carbamate (urethane) | Carbamic acid, ethyl ester | 51-79-6 |
| Ethyl cyanide | Propanenitrile | 107-12-0 |
| Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid | Carbamodithioic acid, 1,2-ethanediylbis- | 111-54-6 |
| Ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid, salts and esters | ||
| Ethylene dibromide | Ethane, 1,2-dibromo- | 106-93-4 |
| Ethylene dichloride | Ethane, 1,2-dichloro- | 107-06-2 |
| Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether | Ethanol, 2-ethoxy- | 110-80-5 |
| Ethyleneimine | Aziridine | 151-56-4 |
| Ethylene oxide | Oxirane | 75-21-8 |
| Ethylenethiourea | 2-Imidazolidinethione | 96-45-7 |
| Ethylidene dichloride | Ethane, 1,1-dichloro- | 75-34-3 |
| Ethyl methacrylate | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester | 97-63-2 |
| Ethyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester | 62-50-0 |
| Ethyl Ziram (5/96) | Zinc, bis(diethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)- | 14324-55-1 |
| Famphur | Phosphorothioic acid, O-[4-[(dimethylamino)sulfonyl]phenyl] O,O-dimethyl ester | 52-85-7 |
| Ferbam (5/96) | Iron, tris(dimethylcarbamodithioat-S,S’)-, | 14484-64-1 |
| Fluoranthene | Same | 206-44-0 |
| Fluorine | Same | 7782-41-4 |
| Fluoroacetamide | Acetamide, 2-fluoro- | 640-19-7 |
| Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt | Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt | 62-74-8 |
| Formaldehyde | Same | 50-00-0 |
| Formetanate hydrochloride | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[3-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride (5/96) | 23422-53-9 |
| Formic acid | Same | 64-18-6 |
| Formparanate (5/96) | Methanimidamide, N,N-dimethyl-N’-[2-methyl-4-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-. | 17702-57-7 |
| Glycidylaldehyde | Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde | 765-34-4 |
| Halomethanes, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Heptachlor | 4,7-Methano-1H-indene, 1,4,5,6,7,8,8-heptachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro- | 76-44-8 |
| Heptachlor epoxide | 2,5-Methano-2H-indeno[1,2-b]oxirene, 2,3,4,5,6,7,7-heptachloro-1a,1b,5,5a,6,6a-hexa- hydro-, (1aalpha,1bbeta,2alpha,5alpha, 5abeta,6beta,6aalpha)- | 1024-57-3 |
| Heptachlor epoxide (alpha, beta, and gamma isomers) | ||
| Heptachlorodibenzofurans | (5/96) | |
| Heptachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | (5/96) | |
| Hexachlorobenzene | Benzene, hexachloro- | 118-74-1 |
| Hexachlorobutadiene | 1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro- | 87-68-3 |
| Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 1,3-Cyclopentadiene, 1,2,3,4,5,5-hexachloro- | 77-47-4 |
| Hexachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | ||
| Hexachlorodibenzofurans | ||
| Hexachloroethane | Ethane, hexachloro- | 67-72-1 |
| Hexachlorophene | Phenol, 2,2’-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro- | 70-30-4 |
| Hexachloropropene | 1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro- | 1888-71-7 |
| Hexaethyl tetraphosphate | Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester | 757-58-4 |
| Hydrazine | Same | 302-01-2 |
| Hydrogen cyanide | Hydrocyanic acid | 74-90-8 |
| Hydrogen fluoride | Hydrofluoric acid | 7664-39-3 |
| Hydrogen sulfide | Hydrogen sulfide H2S | 7783-06-4 |
| Indeno[1,2,3-cd]pyrene | Same | 193-39-5 |
| 3-Iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate (5/96) | Carbamic acid, butyl-, 3-iodo-2-propynyl ester | 55406-53-6 |
| Isobutyl alcohol | 1-Propanol, 2-methyl- | 78-83-1 |
| Isodrin | 1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a-hexahydro-,(1alpha,4alpha,4abeta,5beta,8beta,-8abeta) - | 465-73-6 |
| Isolan (5/96) | Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1-(1-methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester | 119-38-0 |
| Isosafrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)- | 120-58-1 |
| Kepone | 1,3,4-Metheno-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen-2-one, 1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-decachlorooctahydro- | 143-50-0 |
| Lasiocarpine | 2-Butenoic acid, 2-methyl-,7-[[2,3-dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1 - oxobutoxy]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-pyrrolizin-1-yl ester, [1S-[1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*),7aalpha]]- | 303-34-4 |
| Lead | Same | 7439-92-1 |
| Lead compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Lead acetate | Acetic acid, lead(2+) salt | 301-04-2 |
| Lead phosphate | Phosphoric acid, lead(2+) salt (2:3) | 7446-27-7 |
| Lead subacetate | Lead, bis(acetato-O)tetrahydroxytri- | 1335-32-6 |
| Lindane | Cyclohexane, 1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha,2alpha,3beta,4alpha,5alpha,6beta)- | 58-89-9 |
| Maleic anhydride | 2,5-Furandione | 108-31-6 |
| Maleic hydrazide | 3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro- | 123-33-1 |
| Malononitrile | Propanedinitrile | 109-77-3 |
| Manganese dimethyldithiocarbamate (5/96) | Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, | 15339-36-3 |
| Melphalan | L-Phenylalanine, 4-[bis(2-chloroethyl)aminol]- | 148-82-3 |
| Mercury | Same | 7439-97-6 |
| Mercury compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Mercury fulminate | Fulminic acid, mercury(2+) salt | 628-86-4 |
| Metam Sodium (5/96) | Carbamodithioic acid, methyl-, monosodium salt | 137-42-8 |
| Methacrylonitrile | 2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl- | 126-98-7 |
| Methapyrilene | 1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-N’-2-pyridinyl-N’-(2-thienylmethyl)- | 91-80-5 |
| Methiocarb (5/96) | Phenol, (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate | 2032-65-7 |
| Methomyl | Ethanimidothioic acid, N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-, methyl ester | 16752-77-5 |
| Methoxychlor | Benzene, 1,1’-(2,2,2-trichloroethylidene)bis[4-methoxy- | 72-43-5 |
| Methyl bromide | Methane, bromo- | 74-83-9 |
| Methyl chloride | Methane, chloro- | 74-87-3 |
| Methyl chlorocarbonate | Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester | 79-22-1 |
| Methyl chloroform | Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro- | 71-55-6 |
| 3-Methylcholanthrene | Benz[j]aceanthrylene, 1,2-dihydro-3-methyl- | 56-49-5 |
| 4,4’-Methylenebis (2-chloroaniline) | Benzenamine, 4,4’-methylenebis[2-chloro- | 101-14-4 |
| Methylene bromide | Methane, dibromo- | 74-95-3 |
| Methylene chloride | Methane, dichloro- | 75-09-2 |
| Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK) | 2-Butanone | 78-93-3 |
| Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide | 2-Butanone, peroxide | 1338-23-4 |
| Methyl hydrazine | Hydrazine, methyl- | 60-34-4 |
| Methyl iodide | Methane, iodo- | 74-88-4 |
| Methyl isocyanate | Methane, isocyanato- | 624-83-9 |
| 2-Methyllactonitrile | Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl- | 75-86-5 |
| Methyl methacrylate | 2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester | 80-62-6 |
| Methyl methanesulfonate | Methanesulfonic acid, methyl ester | 66-27-3 |
| Methyl parathion | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 298-00-0 |
| Methylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl-2-thioxo- | 56-04-2 |
| Metolcarb (5/96) | Carbamic acid, methyl-, 3-methylphenyl ester | 1129-41-5 |
| Mexacarbate (5/96) | Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester) | 315-18-4 |
| Mitomycin C | Azirino[2’,3’:3,4]pyrrolo[1,2-a]indole-4,7-dione, 6-amino-8-[[(aminocarbonyl)oxy]methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b-hexahydro-8a-methoxy-5- methyl-, [1aS-(1aalpha,8beta,8aalpha,8balpha)]-. | 50-07-7 |
| MNNG | Guanidine, N-methyl-N’-nitro-N-nitroso- | 70-25-7 |
| Molinate (5/96) | 1H-Azepine-1-carbothioic acid, hexahydro-, S-ethyl ester | 2212-67-1 |
| Mustard gas | Ethane, 1,1’-thiobis[2-chloro- | 505-60-2 |
| Naphthalene | Same | 91-20-3 |
| 1,4-Naphthoquinone | 1,4-Naphthalenedione | 130-15-4 |
| alpha-Naphthylamine | 1-Naphthalenamine | 134-32-7 |
| beta-Naphthylamine | 2-Naphthalenamine | 91-59-8 |
| alpha-Naphthylthiourea | Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl- | 86-88-4 |
| Nickel | Same | 7440-02-0 |
| Nickel compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Nickel carbonyl | Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)- | 13463-39-3 |
| Nickel cyanide | Nickel cyanide Ni(CN)2 | 557-19-7 |
| Nicotine | Pyridine, 3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- | 54-11-5 |
| Nicotine salts | ||
| Nitric oxide | Nitrogen oxide NO | 10102-43-9 |
| p-Nitroaniline | Benzenamine, 4-nitro- | 100-01-6 |
| Nitrobenzene | Benzene, nitro- | 98-95-3 |
| Nitrogen dioxide | Nitrogen oxide NO2 | 10102-44-0 |
| Nitrogen mustard | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl- | 51-75-2 |
| Nitrogen mustard, hydro-chloride salt | ||
| Nitrogen mustard N-oxide | Ethanamine, 2-chloro-N-(2-chloroethyl)-N-methyl-, N-oxide | 126-85-2 |
| Nitrogen mustard, N-oxide, hydrochloride salt | ||
| Nitroglycerin | 1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate | 55-63-0 |
| p-Nitrophenol | Phenol, 4-nitro- | 100-02-7 |
| 2-Nitropropane | Propane, 2-nitro- | 79-46-9 |
| Nitrosamines, N.O.S.1 | 35576-91-1 | |
| N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine | 1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso- | 924-16-3 |
| N-Nitrosodiethanolamine | Ethanol, 2,2’-(nitrosoimino)bis- | 1116-54-7 |
| N-Nitrosodiethylamine | Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | 55-18-5 |
| N-Nitrosodimethylamine | Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 62-75-9 |
| N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea | Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso- | 759-73-9 |
| N-Nitrosomethylethylamine | Ethanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 10595-95-6 |
| N-Nitroso-N-methylurea | Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 684-93-5 |
| N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane | Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester | 615-53-2 |
| N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine | Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 4549-40-0 |
| N-Nitrosomorpholine | Morpholine, 4-nitroso- | 59-89-2 |
| N-Nitrosonornicotine | Pyridine, 3-(1-nitroso-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, (S)- | 16543-55-8 |
| N-Nitrosopiperidine | Piperidine, 1-nitroso- | 100-75-4 |
| N-Nitrosopyrrolidine | Pyrrolidine, 1-nitroso- | 930-55-2 |
| N-Nitrososarcosine | Glycine, N-methyl-N-nitroso- | 13256-22-9 |
| 5-Nitro-o-toluidine | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro- | 99-55-8 |
| Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (OCDD) | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (7/02) | |
| Octachlorodibenzofuran(OCDF) | 1,2,3,4,6,7,8,9-Octachlorodibenzofuran (7/02) | |
| Octamethylpyrophos-phoramide | Diphosphoramide, octamethyl- | 152-16-9 |
| Osmium tetroxide | Osmium oxide OsO4, (T-4)- | 20816-12-0 |
| Oxamyl (5/96) | Ethanimidothioc acid, 2-(dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester | 23135-22-0 |
| Paraldehyde | 1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl- | 123-63-7 |
| Parathion | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-diethyl O-(4-nitrophenyl) ester | 56-38-2 |
| Pebulate | Carbamothioic acid, butylethyl-, S-propyl ester | 1114-71-2 |
| Pentachlorobenzene | Benzene, pentachloro- | 608-93-5 |
| Pentachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | ||
| Pentachlorodibenzofurans | ||
| Pentachloroethane | Ethane, pentachloro- | 76-01-7 |
| Pentachloronitrobenzene (PCNB) | Benzene, pentachloronitro- | 82-68-8 |
| Pentachlorophenol | Phenol, pentachloro- | 87-86-5 |
| Phenacetin | Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)- | 62-44-2 |
| Phenol | Same | 108-95-2 |
| 1,2-Phenylenediamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine | 95-54-5 |
| 1,3-Phenylenediamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine | 108-45-2 |
| Phenylenediamine | Benzenediamine | 25265-76-3 |
| Phenylmercury acetate | Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl- | 62-38-4 |
| Phenylthiourea | Thiourea, phenyl- | 103-85-5 |
| Phosgene | Carbonic dichloride | 75-44-5 |
| Phosphine | Same | 7803-51-2 |
| Phorate | Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[(ethylthio)methyl] ester | 298-02-2 |
| Phthalic acid esters, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Phthalic anhydride | 1,3-Isobenzofurandione | 85-44-9 |
| Physostigmine (5/96) | Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-01, 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)- | 57-47-6 |
| Physostigmine salicylate (5/96) | Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis) -1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethylpyrrolo [2,3-b]indol-5-yl methylcarbamate ester (1:1). | 57-64-7 |
| 2-Picoline | Pyridine, 2-methyl- | 109-06-8 |
| Polychlorinated biphenyls, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Potassium cyanide | Potassium cyanide K(CN) | 151-50-8 |
| Potassium dimethyldithiocarbamate (5/96) | Carbamodithioc acid, dimethyl, potassium salt | 128-03-0 |
| Potassium n-hydroxymethyl-n-methyl-dithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, (hydroxymethyl)methyl-, monopotassium salt | 51026-28-9 |
| Potassium n-methyldithiocarbamate (5/96) | Carbamodithioc acid, methyl-monopotassium salt | 137-41-7 |
| Potassium pentachlorophenate | Pentachlorophenol, potassium salt | 7778736 |
| Potassium silver cyanide | Argentate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium | 506-61-6 |
| Promecarb (5/96) | Phenol, 3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate | 2631-37-0 |
| Pronamide | Benzamide, 3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl-2-propynyl)- | 23950-58-5 |
| 1,3-Propane sultone | 1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide | 1120-71-4 |
| n-Propylamine | 1-Propanamine | 107-10-8 |
| Propargyl alcohol | 2-Propyn-1-ol | 107-19-7 |
| Propham | Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester | 122-42-9 |
| Propoxur | Phenol, 2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate | 114-26-1 |
| Propylene dichloride | Propane, 1,2-dichloro- | 78-87-5 |
| 1,2-Propylenimine | Aziridine, 2-methyl- | 75-55-8 |
| Propylthiouracil | 4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-propyl-2-thioxo- | 51-52-5 |
| Prosulfocarb | Carbamothioic acid, dipropyl-, S-(phenylmethyl) ester | 52888-80-9 |
| Pyridine | Same | 110-86-1 |
| Reserpine | Yohimban-16-carboxylic acid, 11,17-dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxybenzoyl)oxy]-smethyl ester, (3beta,16beta,17alpha,18beta,20alpha)- | 50-55-5 |
| Resorcinol | 1,3-Benzenediol | 108-46-3 |
| Safrole | 1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)- | 94-59-7 |
| Selenium | Same | 7782-49-2 |
| Selenium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Selenium dioxide | Selenious acid | 7783-00-8 |
| Selenium sulfide | Selenium sulfide SeS2 | 7488-56-4 |
| Selenium, tetrakis (dimethyl-dithiocarbamate. | Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-, tetraanhydrosulfide with orthothioselenious acid. | 144-34-3 |
| Selenourea | Same | 630-10-4 |
| Silver | Same | 7440-22-4 |
| Silver compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Silver cyanide | Silver cyanide Ag(CN) | 506-64-9 |
| Silvex (2,4,5-TP) | Propanoic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-72-1 |
| Sodium cyanide | Sodium cyanide Na(CN) | 143-33-9 |
| Sodium dibutyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, dibutyl, sodium salt (5/96) | 136-30-1 |
| Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-, sodium salt (5/96) | 148-18-5 |
| Sodium dimethyldithiocarbamate | Carbamodithioic acid, dimethyl-, sodium salt (5/96) | 128-04-1 |
| Sodium pentachlorophenate | Pentachlorophenol, sodium salt | 131522 |
| Streptozotocin | D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-2-[[(methylnitrosoamino)carbonyl]amino]- | 18883-66-4 |
| Strychnine | Strychnidin-10-one | 57-24-9 |
| Strychnine salts | ||
| Sulfallate (5/96) | Carbamodithioic acid, diethyl-, 2-chloro-2-propenyl ester | 95-06-7 |
| TCDD | Dibenzo[b,e][1,4]dioxin, 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro- | 1746-01-6 |
| Tetrabutylthiuram disulfide | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide, tetrabutyl (5/96) | 1634-02-2 |
| 1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro- | 95-94-3 |
| Tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxins | ||
| Tetrachlorodibenzofurans | ||
| Tetrachloroethane, N.O.S.1 | Ethane, tetrachloro-, N.O.S. | 25322-20-7 |
| 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro- | 630-20-6 |
| 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro- | 79-34-5 |
| Tetrachloroethylene | Ethene, tetrachloro- | 127-18-4 |
| 2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol | Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro- | 58-90-2 |
| 2,3,4,6-tetrachlorophenol, potassium salt | same | 53535276 |
| 2,3,4,6-tetrachlorophenol, sodium salt | same | 25567559 |
| Tetraethyldithiopyrophos-phate | Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 3689-24-5 |
| Tetraethyl lead | Plumbane, tetraethyl- | 78-00-2 |
| Tetraethyl pyrophosphate | Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester | 107-49-3 |
| Tetramethylthiuram monosulfide | Bis(dimethylthiocarbamoyl) sulfide | 97-74-5 |
| Tetranitromethane | Methane, tetranitro- | 509-14-8 |
| Thallium | Same | 7440-28-0 |
| Thallium compounds, N.O.S.1 | ||
| Thallic oxide | Thallium oxide Tl2O3 | 1314-32-5 |
| Thallium(I) acetate | Acetic acid, thallium(1+) salt | 563-68-8 |
| Thallium(I) carbonate | Carbonic acid, dithallium(1+) salt | 6533-73-9 |
| Thallium(I) chloride | Thallium chloride TlCl | 7791-12-0 |
| Thallium(I) nitrate | Nitric acid, thallium(1+) salt | 10102-45-1 |
| Thallium selenite | Selenious acid, dithallium(1+) salt | 12039-52-0 |
| Thallium(I) sulfate | Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1+) salt | 7446-18-6 |
| Thioacetamide | Ethanethioamide | 62-55-5 |
| Thiodicarb (5/96) | Ethanimidothioic acid, N,N’-[thiobis [(methylimino) carbonyloxy]] bis-, dimethyl ester. | 59669-26-0 |
| Thiofanox | 2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, 0-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime | 39196-18-4 |
| Thiomethanol | Methanethiol | 74-93-1 |
| Thiophanate-methyl | Carbamic acid, [1,2-phyenylenebis (iminocarbonothioyl)] bis-, dimethyl ester | 23564-05-8 |
| Thiophenol | Benzenethiol | 108-98-5 |
| Thiosemicarbazide | Hydrazinecarbothioamide | 79-19-6 |
| Thiourea | Same | 62-56-6 |
| Thiram | Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide [(H2N)C(S)]2S2, tetramethyl- | 137-26-8 |
| Tirpate (5/96) | 1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2,4-dimethyl-, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime. | 26419-73-8 |
| Toluene | Benzene, methyl- | 108-88-3 |
| Toluenediamine | Benzenediamine, ar-methyl- | 25376-45-8 |
| Toluene-2,4-diamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 95-80-7 |
| Toluene-2,6-diamine | 1,3-Benzenediamine, 2-methyl- | 823-40-5 |
| Toluene-3,4-diamine | 1,2-Benzenediamine, 4-methyl- | 496-72-0 |
| Toluene diisocyanate | Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl- | 26471-62-5 |
| o-Toluidine | Benzenamine, 2-methyl- | 95-53-4 |
| o-Toluidine hydrochloride | Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride | 636-21-5 |
| p-Toluidine | Benzenamine, 4-methyl- | 106-49-0 |
| Toxaphene | Same | 8001-35-2 |
| Triallate (5/96) | Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester | 2303-17-5 |
| 2,4,6-Tribromophenol. (11/99) | Tribromophenol.,2,4,6- | 118-79-6 |
| Tributyltin | Tributylstannane (6/02) | 688-73-3 |
| Tributyltin Oxide | Bis(tri-n-butyltin) Oxide (6/02) | 56-35-9 |
| Tributyltin Chloride | Tributylchlorostannane (6/02) | 1461-22-9 |
| Tributyltin Hydroxide | Tributylhydroxystannane (6/02) | 1067-97-6 |
| Tributyltin Bromide | Tributylbromostannane (6/02) | 1461-23-0 |
| Tributyltin Acetate | (acetyloxy)tributylstannane (6/02) | 56-36-0 |
| Tributyltin Fluoride | Tributylfluorostannane (6/02) | 1983-23-0 |
| Triethyltin | Triethylstannane (6/02) | 997-50-2 |
| Triethyltin Chloride | Triethyltin Chloride (6/02) | 994-31-0 |
| 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene | Benzene, 1,2,4-trichloro- | 120-82-1 |
| 1,1,2-Trichloroethane | Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro- | 79-00-5 |
| Trichloroethylene | Ethene, trichloro- | 79-01-6 |
| Trichloromethanethiol | Methanethiol, trichloro- | 75-70-7 |
| Trichloromonofluoromethane | Methane, trichlorofluoro- | 75-69-4 |
| 2,4,5-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro- | 95-95-4 |
| 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol | Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro- | 88-06-2 |
| 2,4,5-T | Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)- | 93-76-5 |
| Trichloropropane, N.O.S.1 | 25735-29-9 | |
| 1,2,3-Trichloropropane | Propane, 1,2,3-trichloro- | 96-18-4 |
| Triethylamine (5/96) | Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl- | 121-44-8 |
| O,O,O-Triethyl phosphorothioate | Phosphorothioic acid, O,O,O-triethyl ester | 126-68-1 |
| 1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene | Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro- | 99-35-4 |
| Tris(1-aziridinyl)phosphine sulfide | Aziridine, 1,1’,1”-phosphinothioylidynetris- | 52-24-4 |
| Tris(2,3-dibromopropyl) phosphate | 1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1) | 126-72-7 |
| Trypan blue | 2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic acid, 3,3’-[(3,3’-dimethyl[1,1’-biphenyl]-4,4’diyl)bis(azo)]- bis[5-amino-4-hydroxy-, tetrasodium salt | 72-57-1 |
| Uracil mustard | 2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-[bis(2-chloroethyl)amino]- | 66-75-1 |
| Vanadium pentoxide | Vanadium oxide V2O5 | 1314-62-1 |
| Vernolate (5/96) | Carbamothioc acid, dipropyl-, S-propyl ester | 1929-77-7 |
| Vinyl chloride | Ethene, chloro- | 75-01-4 |
| Warfarin | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, when present at concentrations less than 0.3% | 81-81-2 |
| Warfarin | 2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3-oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% | 81-81-2 |
| Warfarin salts, when present at concentrations less than 0.3% | ||
| Warfarin salts, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3% | ||
| Zinc cyanide | Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2 | 557-21-1 |
| Zinc phosphide | Zinc phosphide Zn3P2, when present at concentrations greater than 10% | 1314-84-7 |
| Zinc phosphide | Zinc phosphide Zn3P2, when present at concentrations of 10% or less | 1314-84-7 |
| Ziram | Zinc, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S’)-, (T-4)- | 137-30-4 |
| 1.The abbreviation N.O.S. (not otherwise specified) signifies those members of the general class not specifically listed by name in this appendix. |
Appendix IX. WASTES EXCLUDED UNDER 260.20 AND 260.22
| Appendix IX Table 1 — Wastes Excluded from Non-specific Sources | ||
| Facility | Address | Waste Description |
| BMW Manufacturing Co., LLC | Greer, South Carolina | Wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F019) that BMW Manufacturing Corporation (BMW) generates by treating wastewater from automobile assembly plant located on Highway 101 South in Greer, South Carolina. This is a conditional exclusion for up to 2,850 cubic yards of waste (hereinafter referred to as “BMW Sludge”) that will be generated each year and disposed in a Subtitle D landfill after August 31, 2005. With prior approval by the EPA, following a public comment period, BMW may also beneficially reuse the sludge. BMW must demonstrate that the following conditions are met for the exclusion to be valid. |
| (1) Delisting Levels: All leachable concentrations for these metals and cyanide must not exceed the following levels (ppm): Barium-100; Cadmium-1; Chromium-5; Cyanide-33.6; Lead-5; and Nickel-70.3. These metal and cyanide concentrations must be measured in the waste leachate obtained by the method specified in 40 CFR 261.24, except that for cyanide, deionized water must be the leaching medium. Cyanide concentrations in waste or leachate must be measured by the method specified in 268.40, Note 7. | ||
| (2) Annual Verification Testing Requirements: Sample collection and analyses, including quality control procedures, must be performed using appropriate methods. As applicable to the method-defined parameters of concern, analyses requiring the use of SW-846 methods incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11 must be used without substitution. As applicable, the SW-846 methods might include Methods 0010, 0011, 0020, 0023A, 0030, 0031, 0040, 0050, 0051, 0060, 0061, 1010B, 1020C, 1110A, 1310B, 1311, 1312, 1320, 1330A, 9010C, 9012B, 9040C, 9045D, 9060A, 9070A, (uses EPA Method 1664, Rev. A), 9071B, and 9095B. Methods must meet Performance Based Measurement System Criteria in which the Data Quality Objectives are to demonstrate that representative samples of the BMW Sludge meet the delisting levels in Condition (1). (A) Annual Verification Testing: BMW must implement an annual testing program to demonstrate that constituent concentrations measured in the TCLP extract do not exceed the delisting levels established in Condition (1). | ||
| (3) Waste Holding and Handling: BMW must hold sludge containers utilized for verification sampling until composite sample results are obtained. If the levels of constituents measured in the composite samples of BMW Sludge do not exceed the levels set forth in Condition (1), then the BMW Sludge is non-hazardous and must be managed in accordance with all applicable solid waste regulations. If constituent levels in a composite sample exceed any of the delisting levels set forth in Condition (1), the batch of BMW Sludge generated during the time period corresponding to this sample must be managed and disposed of in accordance with Subtitle C of RCRA. | ||
| (4) Changes in Operating Conditions: BMW must notify EPA in writing when significant changes in the manufacturing or wastewater treatment processes are implemented. EPA will determine whether these changes will result in additional constituents of concern. If so, EPA will notify BMW in writing that the BMW Sludge must be managed as hazardous waste F019 until BMW has demonstrated that the wastes meet the delisting levels set forth in Condition (1) and any levels established by EPA for the additional constituents of concern, and BMW has received written approval from EPA. If EPA determines that the changes do not result in additional constituents of concern, EPA will notify BMW, in writing, that BMW must verify that the BMW Sludge continues to meet Condition (1) delisting levels. | ||
| (5) Data Retention: Records of analytical data from Condition (2) must be compiled, summarized, and maintained by BMW for a minimum of three (3) years, and must be furnished upon request by EPA or the Department, and made available for inspection. Failure to maintain the required records for the specified time will be considered by EPA, at its discretion, sufficient basis to revoke the exclusion to the extent directed by EPA. All data must be accompanied by a signed copy of the certification statement in 40 CFR 260.22(i)(12). | ||
| (6) Reopener Language: (A) If, at any time after disposal of the delisted waste, BMW possesses or is otherwise made aware of any environmental data (including, but not limited to, leachate data or groundwater monitoring data) or any other data relevant to the delisted waste indicating that any constituent identified in the delisting verification testing is at a level higher than the delisting level allowed by EPA in granting the petition, BMW must report the data, in writing, to EPA and the Department within ten (10) days of first possessing or being made aware of that data. (B) If the testing of the waste, as required by Condition (2)(A), does not meet the delisting requirements of Condition (1), BMW must report the data, in writing, to EPA and the Department within ten (10) days of first possessing or being made aware of that data. (C) Based on the information described in paragraphs (6)(A) or (6)(B) and any other information received from any source, EPA will make a preliminary determination as to whether the reported information requires that EPA take action to protect human health or the environment. Further action may include suspending or revoking the exclusion, or other appropriate response necessary to protect human health and the environment. (D) If EPA determines that the reported information does require Agency action, EPA will notify the facility in writing of the action believed necessary to protect human health and the environment. The notice shall include a statement of the proposed action and a statement providing BMW with an opportunity to present information as to why the proposed action is not necessary. BMW shall have 10 days from the date of EPA’s notice to present such information. (E) Following the receipt of information from BMW, as described in paragraph (6)(D), or if no such information is received within ten (10) days, EPA will issue a final written determination describing the Agency th or the environment, given the information received in accordance with paragraphs (6)(A) or (6)(B). Any required action described in EPA’s determination shall become effective immediately, unless EPA provides otherwise. | ||
| (7) Notification Requirements: BMW must provide a one-time written notification to any State Regulatory Agency in a state to which or through which the delisted waste described above will be transported, at least sixty (60) days prior to the commencement of such activities. Failure to provide such a notification will result in a violation of the delisting conditions and a possible revocation of the decision to delist. | ||
| Bommer Industries Inc. | Landrum, SC | Wastewater treatment sludges (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006) generated from their electroplating operations and contained in evaporation ponds #1 and #2 on August 12, 1987. |
| Hoechst Celanese Corporation | Leeds, South Carolina | Distillation bottoms generated (at a maximum annual rate of 38,500 cubic yards) from the production of sodium hydrosulfite (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F003). This exclusion was published on July 17, 1990. |
| Michelin Tire Corp. | Sandy Springs, South Carolina | Dewatered wastewater treatment sludge (EPA Hazardous Wastes No. F006) generated from electroplating operations after November 14, 1986. |
| Savannah River Site (SRS) | Aiken, South Carolina | Vitrified waste (EPA Hazardous Waste Nos. F006 and F028) that the United States Department of Energy Savannah River Operations Office (DOE-SR) generated by treating the following waste streams from the M-Area of the Savannah River Site (SRS) in Aiken, South Carolina, as designated in the SRS Site Treatment Plan: W-004, Plating Line Sludge from Supernate Treatment; W-995, Mark 15 Filter Cake; W-029, Sludge Treatability Samples (glass and cementitious); W-031, Uranium/Chromium Solution; W-037, High Nickel Plating Line Sludge; W-038, Plating Line Sump Material; W-039, Nickel Plating Line Solution; W-048, Soils from Spill Remediation and Sampling Programs; W-054, Uranium/Lead Solution; W-082, Soils from Chemicals, Metals, and Pesticides Pits Excavation; and Dilute Effluent Treatment Facility (DETF) Filtercake (no Site Treatment Plan code). This is a one-time exclusion for 538 cubic yards of waste (hereinafter referred to as “DOE-SR Vitrified Waste”) that was generated from 1996 through 1999 and 0.12 cubic yard of cementitious treatability samples (hereinafter referred to as “CTS”) generated from 1988 through 1991 (EPA Hazardous Waste No. F006). The one-time exclusion for these wastes is contingent on their being disposed in a low-level radioactive waste landfill, in accordance with the Atomic Energy Act, after August 21, 2002. DOE-SR has demonstrated that concentrations of toxic constituents in the DOE-SR Vitrified Waste and CTS do not exceed the following levels: |
| (1) TCLP Concentrations: All leachable concentrations for these metals did not exceed the Land Disposal Restrictions (LDR) Universal Treatment Standards (UTS): (mg/l TCLP): Arsenic-5.0; Barium-21; Beryllium-1.22; Cadmium-0.11; Chromium-0.60; Lead-0.75; Nickel-11; and Silver-0.14. In addition, none of the metals in the DOE-SR Vitrified Waste exceeded the allowable delisting levels of the EPA, Region 6 Delisting Risk Assessment Software (DRAS): (mg/l TCLP): Arsenic-0.0649; Barium-100.0; Beryllium-0.40; Cadmium-1.0; Chromium-5.0; Lead-5.0; Nickel-10.0; and Silver-5.0. These metal concentrations were measured in the waste leachate obtained by the method specified in 40 CFR 261.24. | ||
| Total Concentrations in Unextracted Waste: The total concentrations in the DOE-SR Vitrified Waste, not the waste leachate, did not exceed the following levels (mg/kg): Arsenic-10; Barium-200; Beryllium-10; Cadmium-10; Chromium-500; Lead-200; Nickel-10,000; Silver-20; Acetonitrile-1.0, which is below the LDR UTS of 38 mg/kg; and Fluoride-1.0 | ||
| (2) Data Records: Records of analytical data for the petitioned waste must be maintained by DOE-SR for a minimum of three (3) years, and must be furnished upon request by EPA or the Department, and made available for inspection. Failure to maintain the required records for the specified time will be considered by EPA, at its discretion, sufficient basis to revoke the exclusion to the extent directed by EPA. All data must be maintained with a signed copy of the certification statement in 40 CFR 260.22(i)(12). | ||
| (3) Reopener Language: (A) If, at any time after disposal of the delisted waste, DOE-SR possesses or is otherwise made aware of any environmental data (including, but not limited to, leachate data or groundwater monitoring data) or any other data relevant to the delisted waste indicating that any constituent is identified at a level higher than the delisting level allowed by EPA in granting the petition, DOE-SR must report the data, in writing, to EPA within ten (10) days of first possessing or being made aware of that data. (B) Based on the information described in paragraph (3)(A) and any other information received from any source, EPA will make a preliminary determination as to whether the reported information requires that EPA take action to protect human health or the environment. Further action may include suspending or revoking the exclusion, or other appropriate response necessary to protect human health and the environment. (C) If EPA determines that the reported information does require Agency action, EPA will notify the facility in writing of the action believed necessary to protect human health and the environment. The notice shall include a statement of the proposed action and a statement providing DOE-SR with an opportunity to present information as to why the proposed action is not necessary. DOE-SR shall have ten (10) days from the date of EPA’s notice to present such information. (E) Following the receipt of information from DOE-SR, as described in paragraph (3)(D), or if no such information is received within ten (10) days, EPA will issue a final written determination describing the Agency actions that are necessary to protect human health or the environment, given the information received in accordance with paragraphs (3)(A) or (3)(B). Any required action described in EPA’s determination shall become effective immediately, unless EPA provides otherwise. | ||
| (4) Notification Requirements: DOE-SR must provide a one-time written notification to any State Regulatory Agency in a state to which or through which the delisted waste described above will be transported, at least sixty (60) days prior to the commencement of such activities. Failure to provide such a notification will result in a violation of the delisting conditions and a possible revocation of the decision to delist. |
Appendix XI. OTHER DESIGNATED WASTES
| Hazardous Waste No. | Substance |
| Sections 5555 | Any solid waste the Department determines constitutes a hazard and requires greater control |
| Sections 6666 | Any waste that is declared hazardous by the generator, transporter, treater, storer, or disposer of such waste. (Deleted) |
| Sections 7777 | Non-hazardous waste received by a hazardous waste facility. |
| Sections 8888 | Waste lubricating, hydraulic and cutting oil (Deleted June 23, 1989) |
| Sections 9999 | Waste batteries (Deleted Jan 24, 1986) |
1976 Code Sections 44-56-30 et seq., 48-6-10 et seq., and 2023 Act No. 60, effective July 1, 2024
NOTE: The TCLP (Method 1311) is published in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in 260.11; This appendix no longer is included in R.61-79.261.
Appendix III. CHEMICAL ANALYSIS TEST METHODS
Note: Appropriate analytical procedures to determine whether a sample contains a given toxic constituent are specified in Chapter Two, “Choosing the Correct Procedure” found in “Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods,” EPA Publication SW-846, as incorporated by reference in 260.11. Prior to final sampling and analysis method selection, the individual should consult the specific section or method described in SW-846 for additional guidance on which of the approved methods should be employed for a specific sample analysis situation.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 13, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1989; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 2, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 5, Part 2, eff May 28, 1993; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 30, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 2006; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016; SCSR 43-5 Doc. No. 4841, eff May 24, 2019; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986 Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016; SCSR 43-11 Doc. No. 4882, eff November 22, 2019; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986 Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 32, Issue No. 6, eff June 27, 2008; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 3, eff March 27, 1987; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 17, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 28, Issue No. 6, eff June 25, 2004; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 2, eff February 23, 2007; State Register Volume 32, Issue No. 6, eff June 27, 2008; State Register Volume 33, Issue No. 6, eff June 26, 2009; State Register Volume 34, Issue No. 5, eff May 28, 2010; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; State Register Volume 39, Issue No. 6, Doc. No. 4541, eff June 26, 2015; State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016; SCSR 42-12 Doc. No. 4840, eff December 28, 2018; SCSR 43-5 Doc. No. 4841, eff May 24, 2019; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020; SCSR 44-11 Doc. No. 4976, eff November 27, 2020; SCSR 45-5 Doc. No. 4975, eff May 28, 2021; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Former Regulation, titled Special requirements for hazardous waste generated by conditionally exempt small quantity generators, had the following history: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 13, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1989; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 30, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 2006; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 3, eff March 23, 2012; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012. Reserved by SCSR 43-5 Doc. No. 4841, eff May 24, 2019.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 13, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1989; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 5, Part 2, eff May 28, 1993; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 28, Issue No. 6, eff June 25, 2004; State Register Volume 30, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 2006; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; SCSR 42-12 Doc. No. 4840, eff December 28, 2018; SCSR 43-5 Doc. No. 4841, eff May 24, 2019; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020; SCSR 45-5 Doc. No. 4975, eff May 28, 2021.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 2, eff February 23, 2007; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; SCSR 44-11 Doc. No. 4976, eff November 27, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; Amended by State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; Amended by State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 6, eff June 22, 2007; SCSR 45-5 Doc. No. 4975, eff May 28, 2021.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 30, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 2006; State Register Volume 34, Issue No. 8, eff August 27, 2010; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 34, Issue No. 5, eff May 28, 2010; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020; SCSR 45-5 Doc. No. 4975, eff May 28, 2021; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 10, Issue No. 1, eff January 24, 1986; State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 19, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1995; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 2002; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 2, eff February 23, 2007; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; State Register Volume 39, Issue No. 6, Doc. No. 4541, eff June 26, 2015.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 12, Issue No. 11, eff November 25, 1988; State Register Volume 14, Issue No. 11, eff November 23, 1990; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012; State Register Volume 39, Issue No. 6, Doc. No. 4541, eff June 26, 2015; SCSR 43-5 Doc. No. 4841, eff May 24, 2019; SCSR 44-11 Doc. No. 4976, eff November 27, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992.
HISTORY: Former Regulation, titled Exclusion of comparable fuel and syngas fuel, had the following history: Added by State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; Amended by State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012. Reserved by State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 33, Issue No. 6, eff June 26, 2009. Amended by State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016; SCSR 42-12 Doc. No. 4840, eff December 28, 2018; SCSR 43-11 Doc. No. 4882, eff November 22, 2019; SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 33, Issue No. 6, eff June 26, 2009.
HISTORY: Added by State Register Volume 33, Issue No. 6, eff June 26, 2009. Amended by State Register Volume 40, Issue No. 5, Doc. No. 4646, eff May 27, 2016; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022; SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 49-5 Doc. No. 5328, eff May 23, 2025.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020. Amended by SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Added by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Reserved by SCSR 44-6 Doc. No. 4883, eff June 26, 2020.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 24, Issue No. 8, eff August 25, 2000; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 5, Part 1, eff May 24, 2002; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 27, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 27, 2003; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 2, eff February 23, 2007; State Register Volume 36, Issue No. 9, eff September 28, 2012.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 12, Issue No. 11, eff November 25, 1988; State Register Volume 16, Issue No. 12, eff December 25, 1992; State Register Volume 17, Issue No. 12, eff December 24, 1993; State Register Volume 18, Issue No. 12, eff December 23, 1994; State Register Volume 20, Issue No. 5, eff May 24, 1996; State Register Volume 22, Issue No. 9, Part 2, eff September 25, 1998; State Register Volume 23, Issue No. 11, eff November 26, 1999; State Register Volume 25, Issue No. 10, eff October 26, 2001; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 5, Part 1, eff May 24, 2002; State Register Volume 26, Issue No. 6, Part 1, eff June 28, 2002; State Register Volume 31, Issue No. 2, eff February 23, 2007; State Register Volume 39, Issue No. 6, Doc. No. 4541, eff June 26, 2015.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 30, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 2006; SCSR 46-5 Doc. No. 5058, eff May 27, 2022.
HISTORY: Amended by State Register Volume 11, Issue No. 11, eff November 27, 1987; State Register Volume 13, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1989; State Register Volume 19, Issue No. 6, eff June 23, 1995.