Anthony G. Salazar v. Department of Veterans Affairs
Docket No. SF-1221-15-0660-W-1
UNITED STATES OF AMERICA MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD
December 13, 2022
2022 MSPB 42
Cathy A. Harris, Vice Chairman; Raymond A. Limon, Member; Tristan L. Leavitt, Member
Steven R. Snortland, Esquire, Los Angeles, California, for the agency.
Wonjun Lee, Esquire, Oakland, California, for amicus curiae, the Office of Special Counsel.
Noah J. Fortinsky, Esquire, Washington, D.C., for amicus curiae, the Office of Special Counsel.
BEFORE
Cathy A. Harris, Vice Chairman
Raymond A. Limon, Member
Tristan L. Leavitt, Member
OPINION AND ORDER
¶1 The appellant has filed a petition for review of the initial decision denying his request for corrective action in this individual right of action (IRA) appeal. For the following reasons, we GRANT the petition for review. We AFFIRM the initial decision IN PART, to the extent it determined the appellant proved the agency took personnel actions against him and his disclosures were a contributing
BACKGROUND
¶2 The appellant was a Motor Vehicle Operator Supervisor in the agency‘s Greater Los Angeles Healthcare System. Initial Appeal File (IAF), Tab 6 at 27-28. Between November 2012, when his former first-level supervisor left her position as Chief of Transportation, and July 2014, when she was replaced, the appellant assumed the duties of the Chief of Transportation position. Hearing Transcript (HT) at 10, 13-16, 43-44 (testimony of the appellant). Both the Motor Vehicle Operator Supervisor and Chief of Transportation were required to oversee the vehicle fleet and fleet cards.1 IAF, Tab 6 at 27-28, Tab 15 at 11; HT at 66-68 (testimony of the appellant).
¶3 On October 10, 2013, the appellant sent his supervisor an email reporting that an employee for the Greater Los Angeles Healthcare System‘s Community Care Program had stored the keys and fleet cards for the vehicles assigned to the Program in an unsecured location. IAF, Tab 5 at 62; HT at 16-19 (testimony of the appellant). On October 24, 2013, the appellant emailed his supervisor, as well as his second-level supervisor. IAF, Tab 5 at 63. In this email, he reported further details related to the failure of the Community Care Program to secure vehicle keys and cards, including that vehicles were missing and that there may have been fraudulent card use. Id.; HT at 19-20 (testimony of the appellant). Although these vehicles and cards were assigned to the Program, the appellant was responsible for overseeing their security. HT at 67-68 (testimony of the appellant).
¶4 In January 2014, the agency convened an Administrative Investigation Board (AIB) to look into the theft of fleet vehicles, including those assigned to the Community Care Program. IAF, Tab 8 at 4. The AIB submitted its report 2 months later, which included findings that the appellant‘s supervisor failed to adequately oversee fleet vehicles and cards. Id. at 14-20. It made recommendations, including that “disciplinary or other administrative action should be taken with respect to” the issues identified in its report. Id. at 23. As a result, the supervisor received a letter of counseling, for which he held the appellant partially responsible. HT at 230-32, 245 (testimony of the appellant‘s supervisor).
¶5 In March 2014, the appellant requested training in fleet management, which was to occur in May 2014. IAF, Tab 5 at 72-73. His supervisor responded that he “wanted to hold off a while . . . [because they] need[ed] to do a number of things before then in order to take full advantage of the training.” Id. at 72; HT at 251-52 (testimony of the appellant‘s supervisor). He permitted the appellant to receive the training in September 2014. HT at 249-50 (testimony of the appellant‘s supervisor). In June 2014, the supervisor changed the appellant‘s performance standards. IAF, Tab 5 at 26-30, 49-52. After observing his performance on the new standards for 3 months, the supervisor issued the appellant an unacceptable performance notification and a performance improvement plan (PIP). Id. at 103-09. The appellant was on the PIP for 3 months when his supervisor proposed his removal for unacceptable performance. IAF, Tab 6 at 4-15. Following the appellant‘s response, the agency removed him effective February 4, 2015. IAF, Tab 5 at 16.
¶6 The appellant asserted in this IRA appeal that the actions beginning with the delay of his training in May 2014, and ending with his removal in February 2015, were in reprisal for his two disclosures in October 2013. IAF, Tab 14 at 7-8, Tab 15 at 3-5, Tab 17 at 5-6. The administrative judge found that the Board had jurisdiction over the appeal and held a hearing. IAF, Tab 28,
¶7 Upon finding no direct evidence of retaliatory motive, the administrative judge held that circumstantial evidence supporting an inference of an actual purpose to reprise could encompass the following factors: (1) whether the agency officials responsible for the personnel actions knew of the appellant‘s disclosures and the timing of those actions; (2) the strength or weakness of the agency‘s reasons for the actions; (3) whether the disclosures were directed personally at the agency officials responsible for the actions; (4) any desire or motive to retaliate against the appellant; and (5) whether the agency took similar personnel actions against similarly situated employees who had not made disclosures. ID at 30. After looking at the totality of the evidence, the administrative judge concluded that the appellant failed to prove by preponderant evidence that the agency took the personnel actions with the actual purpose of retaliating against him. ID at 19, 26-52. Thus, he found that the appellant did not prove that his disclosures were protected and denied corrective action. ID at 52-53.
¶8 The appellant has filed a petition for review, disagreeing with the standard articulated by the administrative judge. Petition for Review (PFR) File, Tab 1 at 8-10. He also has challenged the administrative judge‘s factual findings, as well as his determination that he could not consider the appellant‘s due process and harmful error defenses. Id. at 9-32. The Office of Special Counsel (OSC) has filed an amicus curiae brief. PFR File, Tab 5; see
ANALYSIS
The administrative judge erred by applying 5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(2) because the appellant‘s principal job function was not to regularly investigate and disclose wrongdoing.
¶9 The administrative judge applied
The enactment of 5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(2) as part of the Whistleblower Protection Enhancement Act of 2012 (WPEA) clarified the scope of 5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) .
¶10 Under the Whistleblower Protection Act (WPA), which was in place before the WPEA, agencies generally were prohibited from engaging in reprisal for “any disclosure” that an employee reasonably believed evidenced certain categories of wrongdoing.
If a disclosure is made during the normal course of duties of an employee, the disclosure shall not be excluded from subsection [
5 U.S.C. § 2302(b)(8) ] if [the agency takes a personnel action] with respect to that employee in reprisal for the disclosure.
¶11 In adopting this language, the Senate report stated that it was overturning prior case law, including Willis, and clarifying that a whistleblower is not deprived of protection just because the disclosure was made in the normal course of an employee‘s duties. S. Rep. No. 112-155, at 5. However, the Senate report also explained that an appellant making a disclosure under
Personnel actions affecting auditors, for example, would ordinarily be based on the auditor‘s track-record with respect to disclosure of wrongdoing; and therefore a provision forbidding any personnel action taken because of a disclosure of wrongdoing would sweep too broadly. However, it is important to preserve protection for such disclosures, for example where an auditor can show that she was retaliated against for refusing to water down a report.
Id.
¶12 In Day v. Department of Homeland Security, 119 M.S.P.R. 589, ¶ 18 (2013), the Board observed that the WPA‘s definition of disclosure contained in
The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2018 (2018 NDAA) explicitly clarified the intent of 5 U.S.C. § 2302(f)(2) .
¶13 In May 2017, the Senate Committee on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs recommended passage of a bill titled the Office of Special Counsel Reauthorization Act of 2017. S. Rep. No. 115-74, at 1 (2017). The bill proposed to add language to
¶14 An amended version of the bill passed the Senate on August 1, 2017, and was referred to the House of Representatives 3 days later, still containing the proposed change to section 2302(f)(2). An Act to Reauthorize the Office of Special Counsel, and for other purposes, S. 582, 115th Cong. § 4 (2017); Communication from the Clerk of the House, 163 Cong. Rec. H6587 (Aug. 4, 2017). The language of the bill, as passed by the Senate, later appeared, with relatively few changes, in the 2018 NDAA, Pub. L. No. 115-91, § 1097, 131 Stat. 1283, 1615-23 (2017), under the heading “Office of Special Counsel Reauthorization.” In particular, the 2018 NDAA contained an amendment to
¶15 Although not raised by the parties, we must address whether this amended language applies to this appeal, given that the actions at issue here took place before the 2018 NDAA was enacted. We find that it does.3
¶16 The proper analytical framework for determining whether a new statute should be given retroactive effect was set forth by the U.S. Supreme Court in Landgraf v. USI Film Products, 511 U.S. 244, 280 (1994):
When a case implicates a [F]ederal statute enacted after the events in suit, the court‘s first task is to determine whether Congress has expressly prescribed the statute‘s proper reach. If Congress has done so, of course, there is no need to resort to judicial default rules. When, however, the statute contains no such express command, the court must determine whether the new statute would have retroactive effect, i.e., whether it would impair rights a party possessed when he acted, increase a party‘s liability for past conduct, or impose new duties with respect to transactions already completed. If the statute would operate retroactively, our traditional presumption teaches that
it does not govern absent clear congressional intent favoring such a result.
E.g., Edwards v. Department of Labor, 2022 MSPB 9, ¶ 31 (identifying Landgraf as providing the proper analytical framework for determining whether a new statute should be given retroactive effect); Day, 119 M.S.P.R. 589, ¶ 7 (same). The first step under Landgraf is to determine if Congress expressly defined the temporal reach of the statute. Landgraf, 511 U.S. at 280; Day, 119 M.S.P.R. 589, ¶¶ 7-8. If so, that command is controlling. Landgraf, 511 U.S. at 280. Here, the 2018 NDAA amending
¶17 We must therefore determine whether the amended provision impairs the parties’ respective rights, increases a party‘s liability for past conduct, or imposes new duties with respect to past transactions. Landgraf, 511 U.S. at 280. For the reasons that follow, we find that the 2018 NDAA‘s modification of
¶18 When legislation clarifies existing law, its application to preenactment conduct does not raise concerns of retroactivity. Day, 119 M.S.P.R. 589, ¶ 10. In determining whether a new law clarifies existing law, “[t]here is no bright-line test.” Id., ¶ 11 (quoting Levy v. Sterling Holding Co., 544 F.3d 493, 506 (3d Cir. 2008) (citation omitted)). However, “[s]ubsequent legislation declaring the intent of an earlier statute is entitled to great weight.” Id. (quoting Red Lion Broadcasting Co. v. Federal Communications Commission, 395 U.S. 367, 380-81 (1969)). Other factors relevant in determining whether a legislative enactment clarifies, rather than effects a substantive change in, existing law are the presence
¶19 The first of these factors, expressions of legislative intent, weighs in favor of finding that the amended language of
¶20 We next turn to the question of whether the prior version of
¶21 Because of the confusion over this issue, OSC requested of Congress a clarifying amendment, which was then included in the OSC reauthorization bill along with other legislative requests from OSC.5 The clarifying amendment resolved this ambiguity and, as discussed above, comports with how Congress
The appellant‘s principal job function was not to regularly investigate and disclose wrongdoing.
¶22 Turning back to the facts of this appeal, the appellant made his disclosures as part of his normal duties as a Motor Vehicle Supervisor. HT at 62 (testimony of the appellant). Nonetheless, it is apparent that
The appellant established a prima facie case of whistleblower retaliation.
¶23 To establish a prima facie case of reprisal for a disclosure under
The appellant proved that he reasonably believed that his disclosures regarding fleet vehicles and fleet cards evidenced gross mismanagement.
¶24 The proper test for determining whether an employee had a reasonable belief that his disclosures were protected is whether a disinterested observer with knowledge of the essential facts known to, and readily ascertainable by, the employee could reasonably conclude that the actions evidenced gross mismanagement or one of the other categories of wrongdoing set forth in
¶25 The agency‘s mission “is to fulfill President Lincoln‘s promise, ‘To care for him who shall have borne the battle, and for his widow, and his orphan’ by
¶26 The substance of the appellant‘s October 10 and October 24, 2013 disclosures was what he viewed as a “vehicle and credit card issue in the Homeless program [which] is in an alarming state of disarray and must be dealt with immediately.” IAF, Tab 5 at 62. Specifically, he stated that, based on reports he received from employees assigned to dispatch vehicles assigned to the Community Care Program, the fleet vehicle keys and cards were “stored in a room . . . , [to which] nearly everyone could gain access,” vehicle cards were missing, and “[i]t now is apparent that there was a lack of control of these cards and vehicles.” IAF, Tab 5 at 62, Tab 8 at 6, 11; HT at 16-19 (testimony of the appellant), 71-75 (testimony of a former Community Care Management Analyst). He further reported that “personnel from [the Program] stated that thirty of the eighty-eight vehicles were unaccounted for, with no idea who had possession of them,” and he was “aware of ten separate credit cards that [were] suspected of fraud.” IAF, Tab 5 at 63. The appellant‘s supervisor testified that he viewed the appellant‘s October 24, 2013 email as a report of gross mismanagement and that he agreed “obviously, something was amiss.” HT at 229-30 (testimony of the appellant‘s supervisor). We find that the appellant reasonably believed that the agency‘s mismanagement of fleet vehicles created a substantial risk of significant adverse impact on the agency‘s ability to provide services to care for veterans,
The administrative judge properly determined that the appellant proved that the agency took personnel actions against him.
¶27 The administrative judge implicitly found that the appellant‘s (1) delayed training, (2) changed performance standards, (3) placement on a PIP, and (4) removal were personnel actions as defined by
¶28 Concerning his delayed training,
¶29 In March 2014, a Fleet Management Analyst from the agency‘s Veterans Affairs Central Office offered to provide 2-day on-site training to the appellant and others in May 2014. IAF, Tab 5 at 72-73. The training would have given “assistance and oversight of Fleet Management responsibilities, mandates, and ensure policies/procedures are met.” Id. at 73. The appellant wanted to
¶30 Regarding the June 2014 change in the appellant‘s performance standards, “any . . . significant change in duties, responsibilities, or working conditions” is a personnel action under
¶31 Here, the appellant‘s prior performance standards included just one critical element, “Program Administration,” which generally required that the appellant monitor resources for proper utilization, ensure satisfactory performance by staff, identify and fulfill staff training needs, and develop appropriate performance standards for staff. IAF, Tab 5 at 78. By contrast, the appellant‘s updated performance standards included two critical elements, “Motor Vehicle Inventory Control” and “Motor Vehicle Maintenance and Reporting.” IAF, Tab 6 at 16-23. The new standards contained more extensive, focused, and specific requirements
The administrative judge properly determined that the appellant proved contributing factor under the knowledge/timing test.
¶32 One of the ways to prove that a disclosure was a contributing factor in a personnel action is the knowledge/timing test, in which the appellant may demonstrate that the official taking the personnel action knew of the disclosure, and that the personnel action occurred within 1 to 2 years of the disclosure. Wilson v. Department of Veterans Affairs, 2022 MSPB 7, ¶ 41. The administrative judge found that the appellant met this test. ID at 30-31. The agency conceded below that the knowledge prong of the knowledge/timing test was satisfied for each of the alleged personnel actions. IAF, Tab 24 at 24. We agree.
¶33 The appellant made his disclosures in October 2013 directly to his first-level supervisor, who, over the subsequent 15 months, delayed the appellant‘s training, changed his performance standards, placed him on a PIP, and proposed his removal. IAF, Tab 5 at 16-18, 62-63, 72-73, 103-09, Tab 6 at 4-23; HT at 199 (testimony of appellant‘s supervisor). The deciding official also had actual knowledge of the appellant‘s disclosures. The appellant raised his belief that he was the victim of retaliation in his response to the proposed removal, as well as referring to and attaching his October 2013 emails. IAF, Tab 5 at 23-36, 62-63. The deciding official reviewed this response and was aware of the appellant‘s allegation that the actions leading up to and including his proposed removal were in reprisal for his disclosures. HT at 338-41 (testimony of the deciding official). The agency removed the appellant effective February 4, 2015,
On remand, the administrative judge must address whether the agency proved by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the personnel actions absent the appellant‘s protected disclosures.
¶34 When, as in this case, an appellant shows by preponderant evidence that he made protected disclosures and that those disclosures were a contributing factor in the decision to take personnel actions, the burden shifts to the agency to prove by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the personnel actions in the absence of the whistleblowing. Smith v. Department of the Army, 2022 MSPB 4, ¶¶ 13, 23. Clear and convincing evidence is that measure or degree of proof that produces in the mind of the trier of fact a firm belief as to the allegations sought to be established. Id., ¶ 13 n.8;
¶35 In determining whether an agency has met this burden, the Board generally considers the following (“Carr factors“): (1) the strength of the agency‘s evidence in support of its action; (2) the existence and strength of any motive to retaliate on the part of the agency officials who were involved in the decision; and (3) any evidence that the agency takes similar actions against employees who are not whistleblowers but who are otherwise similarly situated. Soto v. Department of Veterans Affairs, 2022 MSPB 6, ¶ 11; see also Carr v. Social Security Administration, 185 F.3d 1318, 1323 (Fed. Cir. 1999).8 The
¶36 On remand, the administrative judge should reassess each of the Carr factors in light of the findings herein, giving weight to the appellant‘s first-level supervisor‘s motive to retaliate, as he testified that “it didn‘t make [his] day” that he received the letter of counseling for mismanagement of vehicles, and responded in the affirmative to the question of whether he held the appellant partially responsible for the letter. Id. at 245 (testimony of the appellant‘s supervisor). Further, on remand, the administrative judge should consider that the appellant‘s disclosures also reflected poorly on the appellant‘s first-level supervisor and the deciding official as representatives of the general institutional interests of the agency, which is sufficient to establish retaliatory motive. Wilson, 2022 MSPB 7, ¶ 65; Smith, 2022 MSPB 4, ¶¶ 28-29.
Therefore, we must consider these issues with the view that the appellant may seek review of this decision before any appropriate court of appeal.
ORDER
¶37 For the reasons discussed above, we remand this case for further adjudication in accordance with this Opinion and Order.
FOR THE BOARD:
/s/
Jennifer Everling
Acting Clerk of the Board
Washington, D.C.
